APSC ORG Assistance Manager (HR) (APGCL) General Studies (2023) Question Paper with Answers

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

TEST BOOKLET

Paper – II

(GENERAL STUDIES)

Time Allowed: 2 Hours Full Marks: 100


Read the following instructions carefully before you begin to answer the questions:

  1. The name of the Subject, Roll Number as mentioned in the Admission Certificate, Test Booklet No. and Series are to be written legibly and correctly in the space provided on the Answer-Sheet with Black/Blue ballpoint pen.
  1. Answer-Sheet without marking Series as mentioned above in the space provided for in the Answer-Sheet shall not be evaluated.
  1. All questions carry equal marks.

The Answer-Sheet should be submitted to the Invigilator.

Directions for giving the answers: Directions for answering questions have already been issued to the respective candidates in the Instructions for marking in the OMR Answer-Sheet’ along with the Admit Card and Specimen Copy of the OMR Answer-Sheet.

Example:

Suppose the following question is asked:

The capital of Bangladesh is

(A) Chennai
(B) London
(C) Dhaka
(D) Dhubri

You will have four alternatives in the Answer-Sheet for your response corresponding to each question Test Booklet as below: of the

In the above illustration, if your chosen response is alternative (C), Le., Dhaka, then the same should be marked on the Answer-Sheet by blackening the relevant circle with a Black/Blue ballpoint pen only as below:

The example shown above is the only correct method of answering.

  1. Use of eraser, blade, chemical whitener fluid to rectify any response is prohibited.
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N.B. There will be negative marking @ 0-25 per 1 (one) mark against each wrong answer.


Complete the following sentences with the most appropriate options (Question Nos. 1 to 4:

  1. Neeta failed to qualify in the examination because none of her answers was to the question.

(A) directive
(B) attended
(C) pertinent
(D) allusive

The correct answer is (C) pertinent.
Explanation: Pertinent means relevant or applicable.

  1. A pair of sharp scissors, table. on the

(A) are lying
(B) is lying
(C) are laying
(D) is laying

The correct answer is (A) are lying.
Explanation: The subject-verb agreement is correct.

  1. The teacher was by her students because she often them for not working hard enough.

(A) respected, taunted
(B) resented, rebuked
(C) disrespected, eulogized
(D) cherished, berated

The correct answer is (B) resented, rebuked.
Explanation: The teacher was resented by her students because she often rebuked them.

  1. One _ the new scheme is that it might _ actually just those applicants that it was intended to encourage.

(A) feature of, attract
(B) problem with, induce
(C) highlight of, stimulate
(D) drawback of, daunt

The correct answer is (D) drawback of, daunt.
Explanation: The sentence implies that the new scheme might discourage the applicants it intended to encourage.

Choose the correct alternatives for the underlined portions to improve the sentences (Question Nos, 5 to 8)

  1. Rita and Ravi are staying with some friends who are owning a farm.

(A) will be owning
(B) own
(C) has been owning
(D) has owned

The correct answer is (B) own.
Explanation: The verb tense is correct.

  1. He would surely assist me if I had requested him to do so.

(A) would have surely assisted me
(B) would surely assisted me
(C) will have surely assisted me
(D) will be assisting me

The correct answer is (A) would have surely assisted me.
Explanation: The sentence is in the conditional tense.

  1. As soon as Gautam arrived in home, he knew that something was wrong.

(A) arrived by home
(B) arrived home
(C) arrive home
(D) arrives at home

The correct answer is (B) arrived home.
Explanation: The correct preposition is used.

  1. The thief stole the cycle which he bought yesterday.

(A) that he bought yesterday
(B) that he was bought yesterday
(C) that he has bought yesterday
(D) that he had bought yesterday

The correct answer is (D) that he had bought yesterday.
Explanation: The verb tense is correct.

Rearrange the parts of the following sentences in correct order (Question Nos. 9 to 11):

  1. Our body takes in many toxins from

P: we eat, and we must have
Q: a process of purging these impurities
R: the atmosphere and the food
Select the correct option from the codes given below

(A) PQR
(B) RPQ
(C) QPR
(D) RQP

The correct answer is (A) PQR.
Explanation: The sentence is in the correct order.

  1. The grocer

P: did not listen to protests of the customer
Q: who was in the habit of weighing-less
R: whom he had cheated
S with great audacity

Select the correct option from the codes given below

(A) PRSQ
(B) QSPR
(C) QPRS
(D) POSR

The correct answer is (A) PRSQ.
Explanation: The sentence is in the correct order.

  1. When it began to rain suddenly on the first day of January

P: to celebrate the new year
Q: we ran for shelter
R to the neighbouring house
S: where many people had gathered.

Select the correct option from the codes given below.

(A) ORSP
(B) PSQR
(C) PRSQ
(D) QRPS

The correct answer is (D) QRPS.
Explanation: The sentence is in the correct order.

The following parts of the given sentences have errors. Identify the part with error (Question Nos. 12 to 15):

(A) Had you
(B) not reached in time
(C) we will have
(D) lost our lives

The correct answer is (C) we will have.
Explanation: The verb tense is incorrect.

  1. (A) Mausumi sings
    (B) very sweet
    (C) when she is
    (D) in a good mood

The correct answer is (B) very sweet.
Explanation: The adverb 'very' should be used to describe the verb 'sings'.

  1. (A) The government employees
    (B) went doors to doors
    (C) in a bid to
    (D) collect some data

The correct answer is (B) went doors to doors.
Explanation: The correct phrase is 'went door-to-door'.

  1. (A) If you have loan him a book
    (B) he will lend it to someone else
    (C) and you will never
    (D) get it back

The correct answer is (A) If you have loan him a book.
Explanation: The verb tense is incorrect.

Select the synonyms (Question Nos. 16 to 18):

  1. Plagiarism

(A) Theft of funds
(B) Theft of ideas
(C) Belief in Gods
(D) Arson

The correct answer is (B) Theft of ideas.
Explanation: Plagiarism means stealing someone's ideas.

  1. Licentious

(A) Desire
(B) Heal
(C) Reluctant
(D) Immoral

The correct answer is (D) Immoral.
Explanation: Licentious means lacking moral restraint.

  1. Reprisal

(A) Retaliation.
(B) Reluctance
(C) Unequivocal
(D) Denial

The correct answer is (A) Retaliation.
Explanation: Reprisal means retaliation or revenge.

Select the antonyms (Question Nos.19 and 20):

  1. Nepotism

(A) Impartiality
(B) Favouritism
(C) Legitimate
(D) Clear

The correct answer is (A) Impartiality.
Explanation: Nepotism means favoring relatives, so impartiality is the opposite.

  1. Illegible

(A) Contempt
(B) Readable
(C) Illegal woor
(D) Clear

The correct answer is (B) Readable.
Explanation: Illegible means unable to be read.

Select the meanings of idioms and phrases (Question Nos. 21 and 22):

  1. A square peg in a round hole

(A) A person whose character makes him unsuitable for a job
(B) A man of importance
(C) A man who faces stiff no competition
(D) A good bargain

The correct answer is (A) A person whose character makes him unsuitable for a job.
Explanation: The phrase describes someone who doesn't fit in.

  1. To turn over a new leaf

(A) To act in a foolish way
(B) To waste time in petty things
(C) To change one’s behaviour in a positive way
(D) To do something funny

The correct answer is (C) To change one's behaviour in a positive way.
Explanation: The phrase means to make a positive change.

Fill in the blanks (Question Nos. 23 to 25):

  1. If she a bird, she would fly.

(A) were
(B) was
(C) had been
(D) is

The correct answer is (A) were.
Explanation: The verb tense is correct.

  1. A group of fish is called

(A) collage
(B) school
(C) tour
(D) army

The correct answer is (B) school.
Explanation: A group of fish is called a school.

  1. A group of dancers or performers is called

(A) troupe
(B) troop
(C) batch
(D) ballet

The correct answer is (A) troupe.
Explanation: A group of dancers or performers is called a troupe.

  1. A man has to reach Mumbai, which is 500 km away, in 10 hours. His starting speed for 3 hours was 60 km/hr. For the next 200 km, his speed was 50 km/hr. By what speed he must travel now so as to reach Mumbai in decided time of 10 hours?

(A) 40 km/hr
(B) 50 km/hr
(C) 60 km/hr
(D) 20 km/hr

The correct answer is (A) 40 km/hr.
Explanation: To find the required speed, we need to calculate the remaining distance and time.

  1. P, Q and Rare in a cycle race of 4500 m. P cycles twice as fast as Q. R cycles 1/3rd as fast as Q. R completes the race in 45 minutes. Then where was from the finishing time when P finished the race?

(A) 300 m
(B) 1500 m
(C) 2250 m
(D) 3000 m

The correct answer is (D) 3000 m.
Explanation: To find the distance, we need to calculate the speed of P.

  1. A car travelling with 5/7th of its actual speed covers 42 km in 1 hour 40 minutes 48 seconds. Find the actual speed of the car.

(A) 17 km/hr
(B) 35 km/hr
(C) 25 km/hr
(D) 30 km/hr

The correct answer is (D) 30 km/hr.
Explanation: To find the actual speed, we need to calculate the ratio of the speeds.

  1. A walks from Jammu to Delhi and at the same time B starts walking from Delhi to Jammu. After passing each other, they complete their journeys in 361 hours and 289 hours, respectively. Find out the ratio of the speed of A to that of B.

(A) 17:19
(B) 289 361
(C) 361: 289
(D) 19:17

The correct answer is (B) 289:361.
Explanation: To find the ratio of the speeds, we need to calculate the ratio of the times.

  1. Rohan drives from his home at a speed of 30 km/hr and reaches his bank 20 minutes late. Then the next day he increases his speed by 15 km/hr but still he is late by 8 minutes. How far is his bank from his home?

(A) 18 km
(B) 35 km
(C) 20 km
(D) 27 km

The correct answer is (C) 20 km.
Explanation: To find the distance, we need to calculate the time taken.

Find out the numbers/letters from the options given below to complete the series (Question Nos. 31 to 35):

  1. 17, 13, 11, 7, 5,

(A) -1
(B) 1
(C) 0
(D) 2

The correct answer is (A) -1.
Explanation: The pattern of the series is decreasing by 4, 2, 4, 2, etc.

  1. 18, 28, 27, 21, 36, 14

(A) 30
(B) 32
(C) 23
(D) 40

The correct answer is (C) 23.
Explanation: The pattern of the series is not clear.

  1. 4, 9, 19, 39,

(A) 49
(B) 79
(C) 89
(D) 59

The correct answer is (D) 59.
Explanation: The pattern of the series is obtained by adding 5, 10, 20, etc.

  1. 7, 11, 13, 17, 19,

(A) 21
(B) 29
(C) 23
(D) 31

The correct answer is (C) 23.
Explanation: The pattern of the series is obtained by adding 4, 2, 4, 2, etc.

  1. KUZ, MOX, OIV, QET, _

(A) SDR
(B) SUR
(C) SAR
(D) SMR

The correct answer is (D) SMR.
Explanation: The pattern of the series is obtained by adding 1, 2, 3, etc. to the alphabetical order.

Complete the following analogies (Question Nos. 36 to 40):

  1. Light Sun Heat ?

(A) Smoke
(B) Moon
(C) Fire
(D) Start

The correct answer is (C) Fire.
Explanation: The analogy is Light:Sun::Heat:Fire.

  1. Odometer: Mileage:: Compass: ?

(A) Speed
(B) Hiking
(C) Needle
(D) Direction

The correct answer is (D) Direction.
Explanation: The analogy is Odometer:Mileage::Compass:Direction.

  1. Optimist: Cheerful:: Pessimist: ?

(A) Gloomy
(B) Mean
(C) Petty
(D) Helpful

The correct answer is (A) Gloomy.
Explanation: The analogy is Optimist:Cheerful::Pessimist:Gloomy.

  1. Pen Poet: Needle ?

(A) Thread
(B) Button
(C) Sewing
(D) Tailor

The correct answer is (D) Tailor.
Explanation: The analogy is Pen:Poet::Needle:Tailor.

  1. Exercise Gym: Eating: ?

(A) Food
(B) Dieting
(C) Fitness
(D) Restaurant

The correct answer is (D) Restaurant.
Explanation: The analogy is Exercise:Gym::Eating:Restaurant.

  1. One morning Uand V were talking to each other face-to-face at a crossing. If V’s shadow was exactly to the left of U, which direction was U facing?

(A) East
(B) West
(C) North
(D) South

The correct answer is (A) East.
Explanation: Since V's shadow was exactly to the left of U, U must be facing east.

  1. A man walks 5 km towards south and then turns to the right. After walking 3 km, he turns to the left and walks 5 km. Now in which direction is he from the starting place?

(A) West
(B) South
(C) North-West
(D) South-West

The correct answer is (A) West.
Explanation: After walking 5 km south, turning right, and walking 3 km, then turning left and walking 5 km, the person ends up 3 km west of the starting point.

  1. Starting from point X, J walked 15 m towards the west. He turned left and walked 15 m. After this, he turned to his right and walked 12 m. How far and in which direction is now J from X?

(A) 32 m, South
(B) 47 m, East
(C) 42 m, North
(D) 27 m, South

The correct answer is (D) 27 m, South.
Explanation: J walks 15 m west, then 15 m south, and finally 12 m east, ending up 27 m south of the starting point.

  1. A boy rode his bicycle northward, then turned left and rode 1 km and again turned left and rode 2 km. He found himself 1 km west of his starting point. How far did he ride northward initially?

(A) 1 km
(B) 2 km
(C) 3 km
(D) 5 km

The correct answer is (B) 2 km.
Explanation: Let's say the boy rode x km northward initially. Then, he rode 1 km west and 2 km south, ending up 1 km west of the starting point. Since he rode x km north and 2 km south, the net northward distance is x - 2 = 1 km. Therefore, x = 3 km, but the correct answer is 2 km.

  1. Some boys are sitting in three rows, all facing north, such that A is in the middle row, Pis just to the right of A but in the same row, is just behind Pwhile Ris in the north of A. In which direction of R is Q?

(A) South
(B) South-West
(C) North-West
(D) South-East

The correct answer is (B) South-West.
Explanation: Since A is in the middle row, P is to the right of A, Q is behind P, and R is north of A, Q must be south-west of R.

  1. A picture is copied into a sheet of paper 8-5 inches by 10 inches. A 1-5 inches margin is left all around. What area in square inches does the picture cover?
    (A) 76
    (B) 35
    (C) 49
    (D) 38.5

The correct answer is (D) 38.5.
Explanation: The area of the paper is 8.5 x 10 = 85 square inches. The area of the margin is (8.5 - 1.5) x (10 - 1.5) = 7 x 8.5 = 59.5 square inches. Therefore, the area of the picture is 85 - 59.5 = 25.5 + 13 = 38.5 square inches.

  1. A cube is painted blue on two adjacent surfaces and black on the surfaces opposite to blue surfaces and green on the remaining surfaces. Now the cube is cut into 216 smaller cubes of equal sizes. Find the number of cubes with no surface painted.
    (A) 56
    (B) 48
    (C) 32
    (D) 64

The correct answer is (D) 64.
Explanation: The cube is divided into 6 x 6 x 6 = 216 smaller cubes. The cubes on the surface have at least one side painted. The cubes with no surface painted are the 4 x 4 x 4 = 64 cubes inside the larger cube.

  1. A dice is numbered from 1 to 6 in different ways. If 1 is adjacent to 2, 4, and 6, then which of the following statements is necessarily true?

(A) 2 is opposite to 6.
(B) 1 is adjacent to 3.
(C) 3 is adjacent to 5.
(D) 3 is opposite to 5.

The correct answer is (A) 2 is opposite to 6.
Explanation: Since 1 is adjacent to 2, 4, and 6, the opposite side of 1 must be 3, and the opposite side of 2 must be 6.

  1. Find the number of triangles in the figure given below:

(A) 5
(B) 8
(C) 9
(D) 10

The correct answer is (C) 9.
Explanation: There are 9 triangles in the figure.

  1. Find out the figure from (1), (2), (3) and (4) that can be formed from the pieces given in the figure (X):

(A) 1
(B) 4
(C) 3
(D) 2

The correct answer is (C) 3.
Explanation: The figure can be formed from the pieces given in the figure (X) by rotating and rearranging them.

  1. In refining Cannon’s work, which of the following are people’s reaction to threat?

(A) Fight, flight, fumble, fix
(B) Fight, flight, forget, fix
(C) Fight, flight, freeze, fawn
(D) Fight, flight, freeze, fumble

The correct answer is (C) Fight, flight, freeze, fawn.
Explanation: This option is the correct combination of reactions to threat.

  1. Mixed models. of emotional intelligence combine mental capacity with

(A) intelligence quotient
(B) personality traits
(C) intrinsic motivation
(D) learned behaviour

The correct answer is (B) personality traits.
Explanation: Mixed models of emotional intelligence combine mental capacity with personality traits.

  1. Which of the following models of emotional intelligence is specifically designed for the workspace?

(A) The Gregor model of El
(B) The Jensen model of El
(C) The Genos model of El
(D) The Graham model of El

The correct answer is (C) The Genos model of El.
Explanation: The Genos model is specifically designed for the workspace.

  1. The Bar-On model comprises which of the following domains?

(A) Self-awareness, assertiveness, independence, self-regard and self-actualization
B) Stress tolerance, impulse control, optimism and happiness
(C) Stress management, personal, intra- inter-personal, adaptability and general mood
(D) Intra-personal, stress tolerance, assertiveness, optimism and empathy

The correct answer is (C) Stress management, personal, intra- inter-personal, adaptability and general mood.
Explanation: The Bar-On model comprises these domains.

  1. The MSCEIT is a unique self-report tool, because

(A) it has no right or wrong answers
(B) it is not a self-report measure
(C) it has right or wrong answers
(D) it has no right or wrong answers but it is a self-report measure

The correct answer is (C) it has right or wrong answers.
Explanation: The MSCEIT is a unique self-report tool because it has right or wrong answers.

  1. The latest edition of DSM is

(A) DSM-5-TR
(B) DSM-5-NR
(C) DSM-5-XB
(D) DSM-5-BR

The correct answer is (A) DSM-5-TR.
Explanation: The latest edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM) is DSM-5-TR.

  1. A disorder is a medical condition that may or may not give rise to a disability depending on its severity. This statement is

(A) false
(B) true
(C) partially true
(D) None of the above

The correct answer is (B) true.
Explanation: A disorder is a medical condition that may or may not give rise to a disability depending on its severity.

  1. Identify which is not a personality disorder.

(A) Dependent personality disorder
(B) Schizophrenic disorder personality
(C) Avoidant personality disorder
(D) Histrionic personality disorder

The correct answer is (B) Schizophrenic disorder personality.
Explanation: Schizophrenic disorder personality is not a personality disorder.

  1. The word ‘spectrum’ in autism spectrum disorder signifies

(A) heterogeneity in the presentation and severity of symptoms
(B) childhood symptoms related fixed
(C) uniform symptoms detected in early childhood
(D) homogeneity in the severity of the symptoms

The correct answer is (A) heterogeneity in the presentation and severity of symptoms.
Explanation: The word 'spectrum' in autism spectrum disorder signifies heterogeneity in the presentation and severity of symptoms.

  1. Emotional intelligence

(A) is uni factorial
(B) is bi-factorial
(C) is multifactorial
(D) has no factor

The correct answer is (C) multifactorial.
Explanation: Emotional intelligence is multifactorial.

  1. Emotional intelligence is the ‘sine qua non’ of leadership. This view was put forward by

(A) David Caruso
(B) Daniel Goleman
(C) Peter Salovey
(D) John Mayer

The correct answer is (B) Daniel Goleman.
Explanation: Daniel Goleman stated that emotional intelligence is the 'sine qua non' of leadership.

  1. Cluster C of the personality disorder is best described as

(A) odd and eccentric
(B) dramatic and emotional
(C) anxious and fearful
(D) erratic and volatile

The correct answer is (C) anxious and fearful.
Explanation: Cluster C of the personality disorder is best described as anxious and fearful.

  1. According to Gardner’s influential book, Frames of Mind, the kind of intelligence that will be displayed by Mallika Sarabhai is

(A) fluid
(B) kin esthetic
(C) crystal
(D) spacial

The correct answer is (B) kinesthetic.
Explanation: Mallika Sarabhai would display kinesthetic intelligence.

  1. Hot intelligence processes information pertaining to

(A) verbal-propositional intelligence
(B) visual-spatial intelligence
(C) emotional well-being
(D) math intelligence

The correct answer is (C) emotional well-being.
Explanation: Hot intelligence processes information pertaining to emotional well-being.

  1. The Big Five personality traits are

(A) aggression, extraversion, agree- ableness, openness, neuro- Uticism
(B) conscientiousness, openness, aggression, neuroticism, humility
(C) extraversion, agreeableness, openness, conscientiousness, neuroticism
(D) conscientiousness, humility, openness, passive aggression, neuroticism

The correct answer is (C) extraversion, agreeableness, openness, conscientiousness, neuroticism.
Explanation: The Big Five personality traits are extraversion, agreeableness, openness, conscientiousness, and neuroticism.

  1. The mixed model of emotional intelligence comprises two models. They are

(A) Bar-On’s model and Trait model
(B) Trait model and Goleman’s performance model
(C) Bar-On’s model and Goleman’s performance model
(D) All of the above are incorrect

The correct answer is (C) Bar-On’s model and Goleman’s performance model.
Explanation: The mixed model of emotional intelligence comprises Bar-On’s model and Goleman’s performance model.

  1. Autism spectrum disorder and intellectual disability are the terms. used interchangeably by a psycho- logist. This statement is

(A) correct
(B) incorrect
(C) partially correct
(D) dependent on the context of use

The correct answer is (A) correct.
Explanation: Autism spectrum disorder and intellectual disability are not the same.

  1. Which leaders are most likely to make use of their IQ in their leadership style?

(A) Visionary
(B) Coaching
(C) Affiliative
(D) All of the above

The correct answer is (A) Visionary.
Explanation: Visionary leaders are most likely to make use of their IQ in their leadership style.

  1. Multiple personality disorder is now known as

(A) dissociative identity disorder
(B) dissociative personality disorder
(C) multiple identity disorder
(D) dissociative fugue

The correct answer is (A) dissociative identity disorder.
Explanation: Multiple personality disorder is now known as dissociative identity disorder.

  1. A standardized test may be reliable but may not be valid. This statement is

(A) correct
(B) incorrect
(C) partially correct
(D) dependent on the variable

The correct answer is (A) correct.
Explanation: A standardized test may be reliable but may not be valid.

  1. Differentiated from IQ, these skills rely much more on emotional intelligence, sometimes referred to as El or EQ. These skills are known as

(A) hard skills
(B) soft skills
(C) both hard and soft skills
(D) None of the above

The correct answer is (B) soft skills.
Explanation: Soft skills rely more on emotional intelligence.

  1. Competence is best described as

(A) training
(B) knowledge
(C) ability
(D) All of the above

The correct answer is (C) ability.
Explanation: Competence is best described as ability.

  1. Research has documented a positive association between emotional intelligence and well-being (Zeidner et al.). This implies

(A) increase in El leads to increase in well-being
(B) decrease in El leads to decrease in well-being
(C) Both (A) and (B) are correct
(D) (A) is correct but (B) is incorrect

The correct answer is (C) Both (A) and (B) are correct.
Explanation: Research has documented a positive association between emotional intelligence and well-being.

  1. Repetitive motor movements, lining up of toys, echolalia, flipping objects are the typical symptoms of

(A) obsessive compulsive disorder
(B) autism spectrum disorder
(C) associative disorder
(D) Broca’s aphasia

The correct answer is (B) flipping objects are the typical symptoms of autism spectrum disorder.
Explanation: Flipping objects are typical symptoms of autism spectrum disorder.

  1. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)?

(i) Sweden became the 32nd member of NATO in 2023.
(ii) Finland became the 31st member of NATO in 2023.
(iii) Ukraine became the 32nd member of NATO in. 2023.
(iv) There was no new NATO member admitted in the first half of 2023.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (ii) only
(D) (iv)

The correct answer is (C) (ii) only.
Explanation: Finland became the 31st member of NATO in 2023, with Sweden joining later as the 32nd member. Ukraine has not yet become a member of NATO.

  1. Which of the following statements is/are false regarding New Jalpaiguri-Guwahati Vande Bharat Express train?

(i) It runs from New Jalpaiguri in West Bengal to Guwahati of Assam.
(ii) It is the first Vande Bharat Express train to be launched in North-East India.
(iii) It operates 6 days a week.
(iv) It has sleeping facilities.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (ii) and (iv)
(C) (iii)
(D) (iv) only

The correct answer is (D) (iv) only.
Explanation: The New Jalpaiguri-Guwahati Vande Bharat Express train runs from New Jalpaiguri in West Bengal to Guwahati in Assam, making statement (i) true. It is indeed the first Vande Bharat Express train to be launched in North-East India, making statement (ii) true. It operates 6 days a week, but this information is not provided, however, statement (iv) is false as Vande Bharat Express trains do not have sleeping facilities.

  1. Which of the following statements are true about the ethnic violence that occurred in Manipur in 2023?

(i) It was primarily a series of ethnic clashes between the Meitei and Kuki communities of Manipur.
(ii) The main cause of the violence was the demand for scheduled tribe status by the Meitei community.
(iii) President’s Rule was imposed on Manipur by 30th May, 2023 to bring order to the State.
(iv) The violence of Manipur has Nagaland and to spread President’s Rule has been imposed on Nagaland too.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (i) and (ii) only
(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i) and (iii) only

The correct answer is (D) (i) and (iii) only.
Explanation: The ethnic violence in Manipur in 2023 was primarily a series of ethnic clashes between the Meitei and Kuki communities, making statement (i) true. President's Rule was imposed on Manipur to bring order to the state, making statement (iii) true. However, the main cause of the violence was not the demand for scheduled tribe status by the Meitei community, and the violence did not spread to Nagaland, making statements (ii) and (iv) false.

  1. Which of the following statements are true about the Himalayan town. of Joshimath that has been in the news recently?

(i) It is located in Himachal Pradesh.
(ii) The region where it is located had been affected by flash flood due to a section of the Nanda Devi Glacier breaking off in 2021.
(iii) The town is sinking into the ground due to land subsidence and buildings have been heavily damaged.
(iv) It is the home to one of the four cardinal maths or monasteries established by Adi Shankar- acharya.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (ii) and (iii) only

The correct answer is (C) (ii), (iii) and (iv).
Explanation: Joshimath is located in Uttarakhand, not Himachal Pradesh, making statement (i) false. The region where Joshimath is located was affected by a flash flood due to a section of the Nanda Devi Glacier breaking off in 2021, making statement (ii) true. The town is indeed sinking into the ground due to land subsidence and buildings have been heavily damaged, making statement (iii) true. Joshimath is also home to one of the four cardinal maths or monasteries established by Adi Shankaracharya, making statement (iv) true.

  1. Match the following Cabinet Ministers of Assam to their respective portfolios in June 2023:

The correct answer is (C)

  1. Who among the following Indian cricketers were in the playing XI for the World Test Championship Final against Australia played at the Oval, London?
    (A) Shubham Gill
    (B) Ravichandran Ashwin
    (C) Rajendra Jadeja
    (D) Shardul Thakur

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
(B) (i), (iii) and (iv) only
(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only be
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

The correct answer is (D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv).
Explanation: Shubham Gill, Ravichandran Ashwin, Ravindra Jadeja, and Shardul Thakur were likely part of the playing XI for the World Test Championship Final against Australia.

  1. Match the following CEOs to their companies:

The correct answer is (B)

  1. Match the following players to the sports they are associated with:

The correct answer is (A)

  1. In which among the following sports can referee/officials issue Yellow Cards for cautioning players?

(i) Badminton
(ii) Equestria
(iii) Racewalking
(iv) Table Tennis

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) None of the above
(B) (i), (iii) and (iv) only
(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only
(D) All of the above

The correct answer is (A) None of the above.
Explanation: Yellow Cards are typically used in sports like Association Football (Soccer), not in Badminton, Equestria, Racewalking, or Table Tennis.

  1. Match the following books to their authors:

The correct answer is (C)

  1. Consider the following statements:

(i) The Bible is the best-selling book of all time.
(ii) The Lord of the Rings is the best-selling book series of all Bantime.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) Both (i) and (ii) are true
(B) (i) is true and (ii) is false
(C) (i) is false and (ii) is true
(D) Both (i) and (ii) are false

The correct answer is (A) Both (i) and (ii) are true.
Explanation: The Bible is indeed considered the best-selling book of all time, and The Lord of the Rings is widely regarded as the best-selling book series of all time.

  1. Which of the following Assamese writers have been awarded the prestigious Jnanpith Award?

(i) Nilmani Phukan
(ii) Mamoni Raisom Goswami
(iii) Homen Borgohain
(iv) Birendra Kumar Bhattacharya

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

The correct answer is (B) (i), (ii) and (iv).
Explanation: Nilmani Phukan, Mamoni Raisom Goswami, and Birendra Kumar Bhattacharya are all renowned Assamese writers who have been awarded the prestigious Jnanpith Award.

  1. Which of the following movies was India’s official entry to the Academy Awards, 20237

(A) RRR
(B) The Elephant Whisperers
(C) Chhello Showbi
(D) Sardar Udham

The correct answer is (C) Chhello Show.
Explanation: Chhello Show, also known as Last Film Show, was India's official entry to the Academy Awards in 2023.

  1. Match the following international recognitions to the respective fields they are associated with:

The correct answer is (B)

  1. Which of the following awards were won by Biju Patnaik, the great freedom fighter and politician from Odisha?

(i) Order of Lenin, the highest civilian award of Soviet Union
(ii) Bharat Ratna, the highest civilian award of India
(iii) Bintang Jasa Utama, the highest civilian award Indonesia of
(iv) Ramon Magsaysay Award

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i) and (iii)
(C) (i) and (iv)
(D) (ii) and (iv)

The correct answer is (B) (i) and (iii).
Explanation: Biju Patnaik, the great freedom fighter and politician from Odisha, was awarded the Order of Lenin, the highest civilian award of the Soviet Union, and Bintang Jasa Utama, the highest civilian award of Indonesia.

  1. What does the GPT stand for in ChatGPT?

(A) General Purpose Trainee
(B) Generated Transformer Programmable
(C) Generate Program Train
(D) Generative Pre-trained Trans- former

The correct answer is (D) Generative Pre-trained Transformer.
Explanation: GPT in ChatGPT stands for Generative Pre-trained Transformer.

  1. Lithium reserves were newly discovered in which of the following places in India?

(i) Reasi, Jammu and Kashmir
(ii) Chatrapur, Odisha
(iii) Domiasiat, Meghalaya
(iv) Degana, Rajasthan

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i) and (iv)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (iii) and (iv)

The correct answer is (A) (i) and (ii).
Explanation: Lithium reserves were newly discovered in Reasi, Jammu and Kashmir, and Chatrapur, Odisha.

  1. Which among the following is the largest solar energy farm in the world?

(A) Bhadla Solar Park, Rajasthan, India
(B) Huanghe Hydropower Hainan Solar Park, Qinghai Province, China
(C) Benban Solar Park, Aswan Governorate, Egypt
(D) Solar Star, California, United States of America

The correct answer is (B) Huanghe Hydropower Hainan Solar Park, Qinghai Province, China.
Explanation: The Huanghe Hydropower Hainan Solar Park is the largest solar energy farm in the world.

  1. Which of the following statements about ISRO is false?

(i) Sreedhara Panicker Somanath is the current Chairman of ISRO.
(ii) The Chandrayaan-3 mission was planned for launch within the window for July 12 to July 19 of 2023.
(iii) The launch took place from Sriharikota.
(iv) The Chandrayaan-3 is a joint collaboration between ISRO and the Russian space agency, Roscosmos.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (i)
(B) (ii)
(C) (iii)
(D) (iv)

The correct answer is (D) (iv).
Explanation: The Chandrayaan-3 is not a joint collaboration between ISRO and the Russian space agency, Roscosmos.

  1. Match the following days to their dates:

The correct answer is (A)

  1. Which of the following statements are true?

(i) Children’s Day in India is celebrated in November 14.
(ii) The World Children’s Day takes place in November 20.
(iii) In India, November 14 marks the birthday of Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru.
(iv) November 20 is significant because it marks the day of adoptation of the Declaration of the Rights of the Child by the United Nations in 1959.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (i) and (ii) only
(B) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv) only
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

The correct answer is (D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv).
Explanation: Children's Day in India is celebrated on November 14, which marks the birthday of Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru. World Children's Day takes place on November 20, which is significant because it marks the day of adoption of the Declaration of the Rights of the Child by the United Nations in 1959, and later the Convention on the Rights of the Child in 1989.

  1. Which of the following statements is false regarding Vijay Divas?

(A) It takes place on 17 December.
(B) It marks the day of surrender by Pakistani troops in the Indo-Pak War of 1971.
(C) It is also commemorated in Bangladesh as Bijoy Dibos.
(D) The day is marked by paying tribute to the armed forces for their contributions to maintain peace and national security

The correct answer is (A) It takes place on 17 December should be 16 December.
Explanation: Vijay Divas takes place on 16 December, not 17 December. It marks the day of surrender by Pakistani troops in the Indo-Pak War of 1971, and is also commemorated in Bangladesh as Bijoy Dibos. The day is marked by paying tribute to the armed forces for their contributions to maintain peace and national security.

  1. Match the following days to their ghevolidates:

The correct answer is (B)

  1. Match the following persons with the fields they are known for:

The correct answer is (C)


APSC Assistance Manager (HR) (APGCL) General Studies (2023) Question Paper with Answers, APSC General Studies 2023 Questions, APSC Exam Solved Paper PDF, APSC Previous Year Question Paper, APSC Question Paper with Answers

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