APSC Research Assistance under Finance General Studies and Elementary Knowledge of Computer Application (2023) Question Paper with Answers

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TEST BOOKLET

Paper – II

(GENERAL STUDIES AND ELEMENTARY KNOWLEDGE OF COMPUTER APPLICATION)

Time Allowed: 2 Hours Full Marks: 100

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The capital of Bangladesh is

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1. Select the correct statement.

(A) Amul recently launched a campaign at the Times Square. in New York with the campaign title “Taste of India”.
(B) Amul recently launched a campaign at the Times Square in New York with the campaign. title “Be more milk”.
(C) Amul recently launched a campaign at the Times Square in New York with the campaign title “Thoroughly Amul, Utterly Butterly Delicious”.
(D) Amul recently launched a campaign at the Trafalgar Square in London with the campaign title “Tase of India”.

2. Consider the following statements:

(i) In the 2020 Summer Olympics in Tokyo, India’s position in the medal table was 48.
(ii) In the 2020 Summer Olympics in Tokyo, India won a total of 8 medals.
(iii) In the 2020 Summer Olympics in Tokyo, Great Britain was stripped of the silver medal the country won in men’s 4×100 m Relay.
(iv) In the 2020 Summer Olympics in Tokyo, Great Britain was stripped of the silver medal the country won in women 4×100 m Relay.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below.

Codes:

(A) (i) only
(B) (ii) only
(C) (i) and (iii)
(D) (i) and (iv)

3. Consider the following statements:

(i) Japanese encephalitis is a mosquito-borne disease caused by Japanese encephalitis virus.
(ii) Japanese encephalitis is spread through the bites of infected Aedes species of mosquitos.
(iii) Japanese encephalitis is spread through the bites of infected Culex species of mosquitos.
(iv) A vaccine is available against Japanese encephalitis.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below.

Codes:

(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i) and (iii)
(C) (i) and (iv)
(D) (i), (iii) and (iv)

4. Consider the following statements:

(i) KIRTI initiative has been launched by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, Government of India.
(ii) The first phase of KIRTI was launched in Chandigarh in March, 2024.
(iii) The second phase of KIRTI was launched in New Delhi in July, 2024.
(iv) KIRTI initiative aims at streamlining the process of grassroot sports talent identi- fication on a single platform.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below.

Codes:

(A) (i) only
(B) (i) and (ii) only
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(D) All of the above

5. Select the correct statement.

(A) Squalus hima is a recently. discovered species of deep- water dogfish shark.
(B) Squalus hima is a recently discovered species of snail.
(C) Squalus hima is a type of alluvial soil.
(D) Squalus hima is the name of a Hurricane.

6. Consider the following statements:

(i) National Girl Child Day is observed on 24th January every year in India.
(ii) National Girl Child Day is observed on 24th March every year in India.
(iii) National Girl Child Day is observed to mark the anniversary of the Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao Scheme launched in 2015.
(iv) National Girl Child Day is observed to mark the birth anniversary of Sarojini Naidu.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below.

Codes:

(A) (i) only
(B) (ii) only
(C) (i) and (iii)
(D) (ii) and (iv)

7. Consider the following statements:

(i) In the year 1659, Chhatrapati Shivaji killed Bijapur Sultanate general with a tiger claw- shaped dagger known as the ‘Bagh Nakh’ (tiger claw).
(ii) The Bagh Nakh’ is currently on display at Shri Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Museum at Satara.
(iii) The Government of Maharashtra has bought the ‘Bagh Nakh’ on a loan for three years from London’s Victoria and Albert Museum.
(iv) The Government of Maharashtra has bought the ‘Bagh Nakh’ on a loan for three years from London’s British Museum.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below.

Codes:

(A) (i) only
(B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(D) (i), (ii) and (iv)

8. Consider the following statements:

(i) International Solar Alliance (ISA) was conceived as a joint effort by India and France to mobilize efforts against climate change through deployment of solar energy solutions.
(ii) International Solar Alliance (ISA) was conceived as a joint effort by India and Germany to mobilize efforts against climate change through deployment of solar energy solutions.
(iii) International Solar Alliance (ISA) was conceptualized in Berlin in 2020 during the COP21 to the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change.
(iv) All member States of the United Nations are eligible to join the ISA.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below.

Codes:

(A) (i) and (iv)
(B) (ii) and (iv)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (iii) and (iv)

9. Select the correct statement.

(A) Operation Nanhe Farishte’ is a project of the Indo-Tibetan Border Police Force.
(B) The Operation Nanhe Farishte’ is a project of Railway Protection Force.
(C) The Operation Nanhe Farishte’ is a project of Central Reserve Police Force.
(D) The Operation Nanhe Farishte’ is a project of Border Security Force.

10. Select the correct statement.

(A) The Houthi Movement is named after the Houthi tribe that lives in Northern Kuwait.
(B) The Houthi Movement is named after the Houthi tribe that lives. in Northern Saudi Arabia.
(C) The Houthi Movement is named after the Houthi tribe that lives in Northern Yemen.
(D) The Houthi Movement is named. after the Houthi tribe that lives in Northern Iraq.

11. Recently, the Government of Assam has signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with ITE Education Services of a foreign country for the purpose of establishing a North-East Skill Centre (NESC) in Guwahati. The foreign country mentioned above is

(A) Singapore
(B) Thailand
(C) United Kingdom
(D) Indonesia

12. As per the 2011 Census, the population density of Assam is

(A) 398 per square km
(B) 389 per square km
(C) 469 per square km
(D) 498 per square km

13. Developing Countries Trading Scheme. (DCTS), recently seen in news is associated with which country?

(A) The United States of America
(B) United Kingdom
(C) India
(D) Malaysia

14. The Scheme Mukhya Mantri Nijut Moina’, which was launched by the Government of Assam in 2024 aims to empower the

(A) transgender community in Assam
(B) destitute children of Assam
(C) girls of Assam
(D) expecting mothers of Assam

15. Identify the climatic phenomenon responsible for the dry con the Atacama Desert from options. 5/24

(A) Rain shadow effect
(B) El Niño
(C) Monsoon winds
(D) Cold ocean currents

16. Consider the following statements about South East Asia:

(I) Most of the population is concentrated in river valleys and coastal plains.
(ii) Only four types of soils are found alluvial, laterite, podzol and volcanic,
(iii) The north-south aligned mountain ranges are actually elevation spars Himalayas. of the
(iv) The land area of the Philippines is greater than that of Vietnam.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below.

Codes:

(A) (i) only
(B) (ii) and (iv)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(D) (iii) and (iv)

17. A dull white to light grey-white mineral used in oil industries and in removing stains, fats and grease is found in the northern part of Baksa district of Assam. The mineral is

(A) fire clay
(B) kaolin
(C) galena
(D) Fuller’s earth.

18. Arrange the following districts of Assam in ascending order of population as per 2011 Census from. the codes given below:

(i) Majuli
(ii) South Salmara
(iii) Biswanath
(iv) Charaideo

Codes:

(A) (i)-(iv)-(ii)-(iii)
(B) (ii)-(i)-(iii)-(iv)
(C) (iv)-(ii)-(iii)-(i)
(D) (ii)-(iv)-(i)-(iii)

19. Fill in the blank with the correct word from the options given below:

According to Griffith Taylor, race’s main physical traits are mesocephalic, curly-wavy blond hair, blue eyes and long stature.

(A) Australoid
(B) Mediterranean.
(C) Nordic
(D) Alpine

20. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):

Assertion (A): The Sahara of Northern Africa, for example, is mainly a product of high atmospheric pressure.

Reason (R): The rain shadow effect of the Atlas Mountains and the presence of cold Atlantic Ocean waters along its Western Coast also contribute to the Sahara’s dryness.

Choose the correct option.

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is explanation of (A). the correct
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(D) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.

21. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):

Assertion (A): Tropical dry deciduous forest is characterized by rainfall less than 75 cm, temperature between 25 °C-30 °C and humidity less. than 25%.
Reason (R): Deciduous forests shed their leaves annually.

Choose the correct option.

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is explanation of (A) the correct.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(D) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.

22. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):

Assertion (A): Hojai, Lanka, Lumding are rain shadow areas.

Reason (R): Monsoon winds from the Bay of Bengal obstructed Meghalaya Plateau.

Choose the correct option.

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(D) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.

23. The proper sequence of rivers Narmada, Gomati, Penna, Godavari and Krishna from south to north in India is

(A) Penna, Krishna, Godavari, Narmada and Gomati
(B) Krishna, Gomati, Narmada, Godavari and Penna
(C) Narmada, Godavari, Gomati, Penna and Krishna
(D) Godavari, Penna, Krishna, Gomati and Narmada

24. Identify the correct statement(s) regarding the physiography of Assam using the codes given below:

(i) Chenghehishon peak is located in the Western lob of Karbi Plateau.
(ii) Barail range topographically bridge Archean Meghalaya Plateau with Precambrian Mizo Hills.
(iii) Ranganadi and Nanoi are the North bank tributaries of the Brahmaputra.
(iv) Western side of the Cachar Plain is open to the Kushiyara- Surma Plain of the Sylhet district of Bangladesh.

Codes:

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (iii) and (iv)
(D) (iv) only

25. Fill in the blank with the correct word from the options given below:

soils are dark and finely textured with heavy loams and deficient in nitrogen, potash, phosphoric acid and lime found in southern border of Golaghat district of Assam.

(A) Piedmont
(B) Lateritic
(C) Hill
(D) Alluvial

26. Identify the perfect match from the given list using the codes given below.

(i) Khmer
(ii) Tonle Sap Lake
(iii) Khorat Plateau
(iv) Johor lowland

Codes:

(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i) and (iii)
(D) (ii) and (iv)

27. As per the Census of India, 2011, which of the following statements. is/are correct about Indian languages?

(i) Indian language comprises 22 scheduled languages and 97 non-scheduled languages.
(ii) A total of 122 Indian languages. are included in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution.
(iii) 100 non-scheduled Indian languages are not included in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution.
(iv) There are 121 Indian languages which include 99 non-scheduled. languages.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Codes:

(A) (i) and (i)
(B) (ii) only
(C) (iii) and (iv)
(D) (iv) only

28. Identify the correct statement(s) regarding the Command Area Development (CAD) Programme using the codes given below:

(i) The Command Area Development Programme was launched in 1974-1975.
(ii) The Command Area Development Programme was a centrally sponsored scheme.
(iii) The main objective of the Command Area Development Programme was to bridge the gap between irrigation potential. created and utilized.
(iv) The programme was restructured and renamed as Command Area Development and Water Management (CADWM) Programme from 1st April, 2004.

Codes:

(A) (i) only
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (iii) and (iv)
(D) All of the above

29. Who among the following is not in the list of legendary Kings of Kamarupa?

(A) Mahiranga Danava
(B) Hemu Danava
(C) Shambarasura
(D) Hatakasur

30. Consider the following pairs:

(i) Si-yu-ki: Banabhatta
(ii) Harshacharita Hiuen Tsang
(iii) Tarikh Al Hind: Al-Biruni
(iv) Rajatarangini: Kalhana

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

(A) (i) only
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i) and (iv)

31. Treaty of Yandabo was signed on

(A) 24th February, 1826
(B) 14th February, 1826
(C) 24th March, 1826
(D) 14th March, 1826

32. Who among the following British Officers was presented a gold medal by the Agricultural Society of Calcutta in connection with the discovery of tea in Assam?

(A) Lieutenant Charlton
(B) C. A. Bruce
(C) Captain Jenkins
(D) Robert Gordon

33. City life began in Mesopotamia. The land lies between two rivers. The rivers are

(A) Euphrates and Tigris
(B) Tigris and Barrage de Samarra
(C) Barrage de Samarra and Barrage de Kut
(D) Euphrates and Barrage de Kut

34. Who among the following Gupta rulers adopted the title, Vikramaditya?

(A) Chandragupta 1 (319-335)
(B) Samudragupta (335-380)
(C) Chandragupta II (380-412)
(D) Kumaragupta (415-455)

35. The Indus Valley people worshiped trees. One of the Harappan seals shows a deity standing between the branches of a tree and the deity was being worshipped by a devotee on his knees. The tree was

(A) Banyan
(B) Ficus
(C) Peepal
(D) Tulsi

36. Akbar succeeded his father Humayun at the age of thirteen years and four months. The military commander Bairam Khan was guardian, chief mentor and advisor of Akbar. Subsequently, Bairam Khan was dismissed from his office. by

(A) Akbar
(B) Abdur Rahim Khan
(C) Adil Shah
(D) Hemu

37. Chhatrapati Shivaji killed an adversary with a ‘Bagh Nakh’ at the foot of the Pratapgarh Fort in the present-day Satara district of Maharashtra. The adversary killed was

(A) Mir Jumla II
(B) Mir Khalifa
(C) Sayed Hakim
(D) Afzal Khan

38. The Premier said, “The Dafla miscreants can be captured only if an elephant can enter into a rat hole”. This statement is attributed to

(A) Atan Burhagohain
(B) Purnananda Burhagohain
(C) Ruchinath Burhagohain.
(D) King Lun Burhagohain

39. Rikkhvan is a ceremony for seeking long life and was generally performed by the Ahoms at the installations of a new King or in time of danger or after victory. Which of the following is not part of this procedure?

(A) The King sat in full dress on a platform and the tribal priests. and astrologers poured holy water over his head.
(B) The water ran down his body through a hole in the platform onto the chief Bailong or astrologer.
(C) The King changed his clothes and all his ornaments.
(D) The wet clothes and the ornaments are immediately handed over to the queen.

40. One of the following historians argued that “history consisted of much more than just political history, International relations and lives of great people”. Who was the historian?

(A) Lucien Febvre (1878-1956)
(B) Marc Bloch (1886-1944)
(C) Jules Michelet (1798-1874)
(D) Ronald Gérard Barthes (1915- 1980)

41. Hominids belong to a family known as Hominidae, which includes all forms of human beings. They are further subdivided into branches, known as genus of Australopithecus and Homo, each in turn includes several species. The main differences between Australopithecus and Homo relate to

(A) brain size and jaws only
(B) jaws and teeth only
(C) brain size and teeth only
(D) brain size, jaws and teeth

42. The League of the Three Emperors or Union of the Three Emperors (1873- 1887) was an alliance among the

(A) German, Russian and Austro- Hungarian Empires
(B) Prussian, British and Russian Empires
(C) German, Russian and French Empires
(D) British, French and Spanish Empires

43. The prolonged military conflict between Iran and Iraq began on September 22, 1980. Identify the statement which is true with respect to the military alliance in the war.

(A) Iraq fought Iran with the help of USA only.
(B) Iran was supported by Syria alone.
(C) Iraq’s allies were Saudi Arabia, Kuwait, neighbouring Arab States, the USA and the Soviet Union.
(D) Iran’s major allies were Syria, Libya and Russia.

44. Identify the pairs which is/are incorrectly matched using the codes given below.

(i) Habeas Corpus: To produce a detainee before a court
(ii) Certiorari Command performs a public duty to
(iii) Prohibition: To quash the order of a lower court by a higher court
(iv) Quo warranto: To inquire into the legality of a claim of a person to a public office

Codes:

(A) (1) only
(B) (iii) only
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (i) and (iv)

45. Consider the following statements:

(i) The Preamble to the Constitution is enforceable in a court of law.
(ii) The Preamble to the Constitution lays down the objectives which the Constitution seeks to achieve.
(iii) The Preamble to the Constitution helps in legal interpretation of the
(iv) The Preamble to the Constitution cannot be amended.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below.

Codes:

(A) (i) and (iii)
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i) and (iv)
(D) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

46. Consider the following statements. regarding the NITI Aayog:

(i) NITI Aayog is a statutory body established in 2015 to replace the Planning Commission.
(ii) The Prime Minister is the Chief Executive Officer of NITI Aayog.
(iii) Its role is to serve as policy think tank of the Government of India.
(iv) It encourages cooperative federalism between the Centre and the States.

Identify the incorrect statements using the codes given below.

Codes:

(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i) and (iii)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (i) and (iv)

47. Consider the following statements regarding the election of the Vice President of India:

(i) The Election Commission of India conducts the election for the Vice President of India.
(ii) It is an indirect election based on a proportional representative system.
(iii) The electoral college comprises both elected and nominated members of both Houses of the Parliament.
(iv) The electoral college includes elected members of the State Legislative Assemblies.

Identify the incorrect statement(s) using the codes given below.

Codes:

(A) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(B) (iii) and (iv)
(C) (iii) only
(D) (iv) only

48. Consider the following statements regarding the Ordinance making power of the President:

(i) The power to legislate by Ordinance is a parallel power of legislation.
(ii) It can be promulgated when both the Houses are not in Session.
(iii) It can be issued when one of the Houses is in Session.
(iv) The decision of the President to issue an Ordinance is immune from judicial review.

Identify the correct statements using the codes given below.

Codes:

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) All of the above

49. Consider the following pairs and identify the incorrectly matched pair(s) using the codes given below:

(i) Adjournment Period between the first meeting of the Parliament and its dissolution
(ii) Recess : Period between prorogation and reassembly in new session
(iii) Dissolution Need for fresh election to reconstitute the House of the People
(iv) Prorogation Termination of a session

Codes:

(A) (i) only
(B) (i) and (iv)
(C) (iii) only
(D) (i) and (ii)

50. Under which of the following circumstances, the Governor can reserve a State Bill for the consideration of the President?

(i) If it is opposed to the Directive Principles of the State Policy
(ii) If it endangers the position of the State High Court
(iii) If it is of grave national importance
(iv) If it is dealing with the compulsory acquisition of property under Article 31 A

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below.

Codes:

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) All of the above

51. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): The device of Adjournment Motion is not used by the Rajya Sabha.

Reason (R): The Adjournment Motion does. not result in removing the Government from the office.

Choose the correct option.

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.

52. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): A Minister at the State level continues in office till he enjoys the confidence of the Chief Minister.
Reason (R): The Chief Minister can ask him to resign or advice the Governor to dismiss him in case of difference of opinion.

Choose the correct option.

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.

53. The President of India’s veto power is a combination of

(i) pocket veto
(ii) qualified veto
(iii) absolute veto
(iv) suspensive veto

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below.

Codes:

(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i) and (iii)
(D) (i), (iii) and (iv)

54. Which of the following pairs are incorrectly matched?

(i) Schedule VII of the Constitution of India: Languages recognized by the Constitution.
(ii) Schedule IX of the Constitution of India Allocation of powers and functions between the Union and State Legislature.
(iii) Schedule X of the Constitution of India: Provisions related to the disqualification of MPs and MLAs on grounds of defection.
(iv) Schedule XI of the Constitution of India: Powers, authority and responsibilities of Panchayats

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below.

Codes:

(A) (ii) and (iii)
(B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (i) and (iii)
(D) (iii) and (iv)

55. Consider the following statements regarding the joint sitting of the Houses of the Parliament:

(i) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha summons a joint sitting in case of a deadlock between the Houses of the Parliament.
(ii) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides over a joint sitting of the Houses.
(iii) In the absence of the Speaker, the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha presides over the joint sitting.
(iv) In the absence of the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides over the joint sitting.

Identify the correct statements using the codes given below.

Codes:

(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (ii) and (iv)

56. Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India was/were given immediate effect, ie., with effect from November 26, 1949?

(i) Citizenship
(ii) Emergency Provisions
(iii) Elections
(iv) Federal System

Identify the correct answer using the codes given below.

Codes:

(A) (i) only
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i) and (iv)
(D) (i) and (iii)

57. Consider the formation of the following States in India:

(i) Chhattisgarh
(ii) Manipur
(iii) Mizoram
(iv) Nagaland

Which one of the following codes is the correct chronological order of the formation of the above?

(A) (ii)-(iii)-(iv)-(i)
(B) (iii)-(ii)-(iv)-(i)
(C) (iv)-(ii)-(iii)-(i)
(D) (iv)-(iii)-(ii)-(i)

58. Consider the following functionaries in the Indian order of precedence:

(i) The Vice-President
(ii) The former Presidents
(iii) The Governors of States within their respective States
(iv) The Chief Justice of India

Choose the correct order of precedence using the codes given. below.

(A) (i)-(ii)-(iii)-(iv)
(B) (i)-(iii)-(ii)-(iv)
(C) (ii)-(i)-(iv)-(iii)
(D) (ii)-(i)-(iii)-(iv)

59. Capitalism’ refers to

(A) the use of markets.
(B) the government ownership of capital goods
(C) the private ownership of capital goods
(D) the private ownership of houses and cars

60. What type of economy can be termed as a laissez-faire economy?

(A) Mixed economy
(B) Socialist economy.
(C) Command economy
(D) Capitalist economy

61. The bowed shape of the production possibilities curve illustrates

(A) the law of increasing marginal cost
(B) that the production inefficient is
(C) that the production is unattainable
(D) that the demand is relatively inelastic

62. The price elasticity of demand is the

(A) percentage change in quantity demanded divided by the percentage change in price
(B) percentage change in price divided by the percentage change in quantity demanded
(C) change in quantity demanded by the change in price
(D) percentage change in the quantity demanded divided by the percentage change in the quantity supplied

63. What happens if the price floor is set higher than the equilibrium price?

(A) Scarcity
(B) Stability
(C) Surplus
(D) None of the above

64. Owing to the Russia-Ukraine crisis, the world is experiencing rising crude prices on account of supply- side issues. Identify the most likely impact on the balance of payments situation of the Indian Economy from the following:

(A) Production of cars in India will rise
(B) Production and sale of bicycles in India will rise
(C) Inflow of US Dollars to India will rise
(D) Outflow of US Dollars from India will rise

65. What was one of the main targets of the First Five-Year Plan?

(A) Development of agriculture
(B) Development of textile industry
(C) Development of manufacturing industries
(D) Strengthening of the armed forces

66. What is the FDI allowed in defense manufacturing in India through the automatic route?

(A) 100%
(B) 74%
(C) 51%
(D) 49%

67. Which of the following has the responsibility to issue a rupee coin?

(A) The Reserve Bank of India
(B) The Ministry of Finance, Government of India
(C) State Bank of India
(D) Central Coin Institute

68. The economic survey report is released by

(A) the Ministry of Finance, Government of India
(B) the Indian Statistical Institute
(C) the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation, Government of India
(D) the Reserve Bank of India

69. The per capita income of Assam at current prices for the FY 2022- 2023 has been estimated to be

(A) 98,504
(B) 1,18,504
(C) 1,68,504
(D) 1,98,504

70. The total number of oil refineries located in Assam is

(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 7

71. An increase in money supply will cause interest rate to

(A) rise
(B) fall
(C) remain unchanged
(D) May rise or fall depending on the prevailing weather condition

72. For a closed economy (with nо foreign trade), which one of the following is correct?

(A) GDP = GNP
(B) GDPGNP
(C) GDPGNP
(D) GDP and GNP will have an unpredictable relationship

73. Bit is

(A) a binary information term
(B) binary digit
(C) binary tree
(D) a bi-variate theory

74. What do you call the computers that are connected to the server?

(A) Client
(B) PC
(C) Laptop
(D) Workstation

75. The amount of time needed to send data from one computer to another in the network is known as

(A) bandwidth
(B) latency
(C) congestion
(D) timestamp

76. What is the mobile app which is supported by the Ministry of Electronics and IT under its Digital India Initiative?

(A) LinkedIn
(B) DigiLocker
(C) Instagram
(D) X (formerly Twitter)

77. With regard to computer memory, which of the following statements. is/are true?

(i) Cache memory is a volatile memory.
(ii) Magnetic memory is a volatile memory.
(iii) Flash memory is a volatile memory.
(iv) RAM is a volatile memory.

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below.

Codes:

(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i) and (iv)
(C) (iii) and (iv)
(D) (iv) only

78. The unwanted bulk e-mails that come from strange sources are called

(A) spam
(B) trash
(C) junk
(D) virus

79. Consider the following statements and identify the incorrect statement(s) using the codes given below.

(i) It is a fast and convenient way to communicate with one another via the Internet.
(ii) When an e-mail is received, one can forward it to others without retyping it.
(iii) An e-mail cannot be sent to multiple recipients simulta- neously.
(iv) A file sent along with an e-mail message is called an attachment.

Codes:

(A) (i) and (ii) only
(B) (ii) and (iv) only
(C) (iii) only
(D) (iv) only

80. Which of the following is a utility software?

(A) Antivirus
(B) Disk defragmenter
(C) Compression tool
(D) All of the above

81. Select the incorrect statement regarding the control unit of a microprocessor.

(A) It stores data in the memory.
(B) It accepts input data from the keyboard.
(C) It performs arithmetic and logic operations.
(D) It performs none of the above functions.

82. The higher the resolution of a computer monitor, the

(A) closer together are the pixels.
(B) larger are the pixels
(C) further apart are the pixels
(D) less clear is the screen

83. Which of the following statements is true?

(A) Cache memories are bigger than RAM.
(B) Cache memories are smaller than RAM.
(C) ROM is faster than RAM.
(D) Data in ROM can be modified or erased by users.

84. Virtual reality provides

(A) sharp picture
(B) individual audio
(C) participatory experience
(D) preview of new films

85. A computer virus is a/an

(A) hardware
(B) virus
(C) software
(D) operating system

86. High-capacity communications bandwidth that is used by coaxial cables and fiber optic cables is known as

(A) hyperlink
(B) broadband
(C) bus width
(D) barrier wave

87. In an examination, the average marks of a student per paper were 75. Had he obtained 30 marks more in Science, 11 marks more in History, 4 marks more in Hindi and 5 marks more in English, his average marks per paper would have been 80. How many papers were there in the examination?

(A) 15
(B) 10
(C) 8
(D) 13

88. If 30% of 40% of X is 48, then X is

(A) 30
(B) 40
(C) 45
(D) 35

89. In how many years the simple interest earned on 16,000-00 at 2% per annum will be equal to simple interest earned on 8,000-00 at 4% per annum in 7 years?

(A) 5 years
(B) 6 years
(C) 7 years
(D) 8 years

90. The sum of the ages of 5 children born at intervals of 2-5 years each is 50 years. What is the age of the youngest child?

(A) 3 years
(B) 4 years
(C) 5 years
(D) 6 years

91. A man is 30 years older than his son. In two years, his age will be twice the age of his son. The present age of the son is

(A) 22 years
(B) 28 years
(C) 30 years
(D) 32 years

92. If A and B are in the ratio 4:5 and Band Care in the ratio 11:12, then A and C will be in the ratio

(A) 4:12
(B) 5:11
(C) 4:15
(D) 11:15

93. By selling an electric jar at 1,900-00, a man loses 5%. For how much the jar should have been sold to gain 5%?

(A) 2,100
(B) 2,150
(C) 2,200
(D) 2,250

94. A rectangle has length 50 cm, breadth 30 cm. Length of the rectangle is increased by 25% and its breadth is increased by 20%. What is the percentage change of the area of the rectangle?

(A) 45%
(B) 49%
(C) 50%
(D) 55%

95. What should come in the place of the question mark ? in the following series?

20, 21, 23, 26, 30, ?

(A) 32
(B) 33
(C) 34
(D) 35

96. A man goes from Uzanbazar to Panbazar at an average speed of 5 km/hr and then returns to Uzanbazar by the same route at an average speed of 6 km/hr. What is the average speed of the man (corrected up to two decimal places) for the entire journey?

(A) 5.50 km/hr
(B) 5.45 km/hr
(C) 5.65 km/hr
(D) 5.75 km/hr

97. A man has an equal number of 5 rupee notes, 10 rupee notes and 20 rupee notes, which sum totals to 805-00. What is the total number of notes in his possession?

(A) 23
(B) 32
(C) 46
(D) 69

98. In the first 10 overs of a cricket match, the run rate was 4-2. What should be the run rate in the remaining 40 overs to reach the target of 292 runs?

(A) 6.5
(B) 6.25
(C) 6.75
(D) 6.15

99. If the cost price of 15 toys is equal to the selling price of 20 toys, then find the loss in percentage in the transaction.

(A) 16%
(B) 20%
(C) 26%
(D) 25%

100. The LCM of two numbers is 4590 and their HCF is 17. If one of the numbers is 102, the other number is

(A) 765
(B) 775
(C) 785
(D) 795

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APSC Research Assistance under Finance General Studies and Elementary Knowledge of Computer Application Question Paper (2023), APSC General Studies 2023 Questions, APSC Exam Solved Paper PDF, APSC Previous Year Question Paper, APSC Question Paper with Answers

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