APSC Junior Engineer Mechanical (2023) Question Paper with Answers

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

TEST BOOKLET

Paper – II

( MECHANICAL ENGINEERING)

Time Allowed: 2 Hours Full Marks: 100


Read the following instructions carefully before you begin to answer the questions:

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  1. Answer-Sheet without marking Series as mentioned above in the space provided for in the Answer-Sheet shall not be evaluated.
  1. All questions carry equal marks.

The Answer-Sheet should be submitted to the Invigilator.

Directions for giving the answers: Directions for answering questions have already been issued to the respective candidates in the Instructions for marking in the OMR Answer-Sheet’ along with the Admit Card and Specimen Copy of the OMR Answer-Sheet.

Example:

Suppose the following question is asked:

The capital of Bangladesh is

(A) Chennai
(B) London
(C) Dhaka
(D) Dhubri

You will have four alternatives in the Answer-Sheet for your response corresponding to each question Test Booklet as below: of the

In the above illustration, if your chosen response is alternative (C), Le., Dhaka, then the same should be marked on the Answer-Sheet by blackening the relevant circle with a Black/Blue ballpoint pen only as below:

The example shown above is the only correct method of answering.

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N.B. There will be a negative marking of one-fourth (0.25) of a mark for each incorrect answer.


  1. For placing of dimensions in engineering drawing, there are number(s) of system(s).

(A) three
(B) two
(C) four
(D) one

The correct option is (A) three
Explanation: There are three systems for placing dimensions in engineering drawings: the unidirectional system, the aligned system, and the angular dimensioning system.

  1. There are types of scales used in practice of engineering drawing.

(A) four
(B) three
(C) two
(D) five

The correct option is (B) three
Explanation: There are three types of scales commonly used in engineering drawing: representative fraction (RF) scale, vernier scale, and diagonal scale.

  1. The gravitational field intensity is maximum

(A) at the equator
(B) at the pole
(C) at the centre of the earth.
(D) at a height above the surface

The correct option is (B) at the pole
Explanation: The gravitational field intensity is maximum at the pole because the distance from the Earth's center is the shortest there, and the effect of Earth's rotation is less.

  1. The resultant of force acting on a body will be zero, if the body

(A) rotates
(B) does not rotate
(C) moves along a curved path
(D) rotates acceleration with uniform

The correct option is (B) does not rotate
Explanation: The resultant of forces acting on a body will be zero if the body does not rotate and is in a state of equilibrium (both translational and rotational).

  1. A passenger train takes two hours less for a journey of 300 km if its speed is increased by 5 km/hr over its usual speed. Then what is the usual speed?

(A) 15 km/hr
(B) 29 km/hr
(C) 25 km/hr
(D) 30 km/hr

The correct option is (C) 25 km/hr
Explanation: Let's assume the usual speed is x km/hr. The time taken for the journey at the usual speed is 300/x hours. The time taken at the increased speed of (x+5) km/hr is 300/(x+5) hours. The difference in time is 2 hours, so we can set up the equation:
rac{300}{x} - rac{300}{x+5} = 2

  1. The motion of a bicycle wheel is

(A) linear
(B) rotatory
(C) translatory
(D) rotatory as well as translatory

The correct option is (D) rotatory as well as translatory
Explanation: The motion of a bicycle wheel involves both rotary motion (the wheel spinning) and translatory motion (the wheel moving forward along the ground).

  1. Newton’s first law of motion gives the concept of

(A) work
(B) force
(C) inertia
(D) energy

The correct option is (C) inertia
Explanation: Newton's first law of motion states that an object at rest stays at rest, and an object in motion stays in motion unless acted upon by an external force. This property is known as inertia.

  1. The moment of inertia of a body does not depend upon

(A) mass of the body
(B) the angular velocity of a body
(C) the axis of rotation of the body
(D) None of the above

The correct option is (B) the angular velocity of a body
Explanation: The moment of inertia of a body depends on its mass, the axis of rotation, and the distribution of mass. However, it does not depend on the angular velocity.

  1. A non-reversible machine has efficiency

(A) nearly 100%
(B) between 75% and 99%
(C) more than 50%
(D) less than 50%

The correct option is (D) less than 50%
Explanation: A non-reversible machine typically has less than 50% efficiency because a significant amount of energy is lost as heat or in other forms during the operation.

  1. The moment of inertia of an area is always least with respect to

(A) centroidal axis
(B) vertical axis
(C) radius of gyration
(D) Depends upon configuration of the area

The correct option is (A) centroidal axis
Explanation: The moment of inertia of an area is always least with respect to the centroidal axis, as this represents the axis through the center of mass.

  1. The unit of the moment of inertia of an area is

(A) kg.m
(B) kg.m2
(C) kg.m4
(D) m4

The correct option is (B) kg.m2
Explanation: The unit of the moment of inertia of an area is kg.m², which reflects mass distribution relative to the axis of rotation.

  1. The CG of a triangle lies at the point of intersection of

(A) diagonals
(B) altitudes
(C) bisectors of angles
(D) medians

The correct option is (D) medians
Explanation: The center of gravity (CG) of a triangle lies at the point of intersection of its medians, which are the lines connecting each vertex to the midpoint of the opposite side.

  1. In simple harmonic motion, the acceleration is proportional to

(A) displacement
(B) linear velocity
(C) angular velocity
(D) energy

The correct answer is (A) displacement
Explanation: In simple harmonic motion, the restoring force is proportional to the displacement from the equilibrium position, and since acceleration is directly related to force, it is proportional to the displacement.

  1. A body moving around a fixed axis constitutes

(A) curvilinear motion
(B) circular motion
(C) plane motion
(D) simultaneous translation and rotation

The correct answer is (B) circular motion
Explanation: When a body moves around a fixed axis, its motion traces a circular path, making it a type of circular motion.

  1. Stiffness of a material is expressed in terms of

(A) mass density
(B) hardness number
(C) impact strength
(D) modulus of elasticity

The correct answer is (D) modulus of elasticity
Explanation: The modulus of elasticity (also known as Young's modulus) measures the stiffness of a material, quantifying its ability to resist deformation under stress.

  1. Toughness of a material signifies

(A) strength
(B) softness
(C) brittleness
(D) lower yield point

The correct answer is (A) strength
Explanation: Toughness refers to a material's ability to absorb energy and deform without fracturing, which is related to its strength.

  1. The statement, Stress is proportional to strain, i.e., Hooke’s law holds goods up to

(A) elastic limit
(B) limit of proportionality
(C) upper yield point
(D) lower yield point

The correct answer is (A) elastic limit
Explanation: Hooke's law, which states that stress is proportional to strain, holds true up to the elastic limit, beyond which permanent deformation occurs.

  1. The tendency of a material to fracture without appreciable deformation is called

(A) toughness
(B) stiffness
(C) plasticity
(D) brittleness

The correct answer is (D) brittleness
Explanation: Brittleness is the property of a material that leads to fracture with minimal deformation.

  1. The shear force at a certain section of a beam is stated to be zero. The bending moment at that section. will be

(A) minimum
(B) maximum
(C) zero
(D) either minimum or maximum

The correct answer is (D) either minimum or maximum
Explanation: When shear force is zero at a point, the bending moment at that point is either a maximum or a minimum.

  1. A structural member subjected to an axial compressive force is called

(A) beam
(B) column
(C) frame
(D) strut

The correct answer is (B) column
Explanation: A column is a vertical structural member that is subjected to axial compressive forces.

  1. The shape of the bending moment diagram for a cantilever beam carrying a uniformly distributed load is

(A) a straight line
(B) a hyperbola
(C) an ellipse
(D) a parabola

The correct answer is (D) a parabola
Explanation: For a cantilever beam with a uniformly distributed load, the bending moment varies parabolically along the length of the beam.

  1. Slenderness ratio of a column is defined as the ratio of its length to its

(A) least radius of gyration
(B) least lateral dimension
(C) maximum lateral dimension
(D) maximum radius of gyration

The correct answer is (A) least radius of gyration
Explanation: The slenderness ratio is defined as the ratio of the effective length of the column to its least radius of gyration, which helps in determining its stability against buckling.

  1. Young’s modulus of elasticity for a perfectly rigid body is

(A) zero
(B) unity
(C) infinity
(D) some constant infinite non-zero

The correct answer is (C) infinity
Explanation: For a perfectly rigid body, Young’s modulus is considered infinite, indicating no deformation under stress.

  1. Hoop stress is

(A) radial stress
(B) compressive stress
(C) longitudinal stress.
(D) circumferential tensile stress

The correct answer is (D) circumferential tensile stress
Explanation: Hoop stress refers to the tensile stress that acts in the circumferential direction of a cylinder, especially under internal pressure.

  1. The stress at the neutral axis is

(A) zero
(B) maximum tensile
(C) minimum compressive
(D) minimum tensile

The correct answer is (A) zero
Explanation: At the neutral axis of a beam, there is no longitudinal stress since it neither stretches nor compresses during bending.

  1. The moment of inertia of an area will be least with respect to

(A) central axis
(B) horizontal axis
(C) vertical axis
(D) moment of area same through all axes

The correct answer is (A) central axis
Explanation: The moment of inertia of an area is least with respect to an axis passing through its center of mass (central axis) because this axis is the one around which the area is most symmetrically distributed.

  1. If a column fails due to buckling, it is likely to be a

(A) long column
(B) short column
(C) strut
(D) reinforced column

The correct answer is (A) long column
Explanation: Buckling generally occurs in long columns under compressive load, where the column is more prone to deflect and buckle.

  1. Modulus of rigidity is the ratio of

(A) axial stress to lateral strain
(B) linear stress to longitudinal strain
(C) shear stress to shear strain
(D) hydrostatic stress volumetric strain to

The correct answer is (C) shear stress to shear strain
Explanation: Modulus of rigidity (or shear modulus) measures the material's response to shear stress, and is defined as the ratio of shear stress to shear strain.

  1. An ideal fluid

(A) has no viscosity
(B) satisfies the relation PV = RT
(C) obeys the Newton’s law of viscosity
(D) is both incompressible and non-viscous

The correct answer is (D) is both incompressible and non-viscous
Explanation: An ideal fluid is one that has no viscosity and is incompressible, making it an idealized concept in fluid mechanics.

  1. The general energy equation is applicable to

(A) steady flow
(B) unsteady flow
(C) turbulent flow
(D) laminar flow

The correct answer is (B) unsteady flow
Explanation: The general energy equation can be applied to both steady and unsteady flows, but it is more commonly used for unsteady flow analysis.

  1. Bernoulli’s theorem deals with the principle of conservation of

(A) force
(B) energy
(C) mass
(D) momentum

The correct answer is (B) energy
Explanation: Bernoulli's theorem is a principle of energy conservation for flowing fluids, stating that the total mechanical energy (pressure energy, kinetic energy, and potential energy) remains constant along a streamline.

  1. The equation of continuity of flow is based on the principle of conservation of

(A) momentum
(B) energy
(C) mass
(D) None of the above

The correct answer is (C) mass
Explanation: The equation of continuity is based on the conservation of mass, ensuring that the mass flow rate remains constant in an incompressible fluid flow.

  1. A Pitot tube is used for the measurement of

(A) viscosity
(B) pressure
(C) surface tension
(D) velocity

The correct answer is (D) velocity
Explanation: A Pitot tube is used to measure the velocity of fluid flow, typically by comparing the difference between static and dynamic pressure.

  1. Capillary action is due to the

(A) viscosity of liquid
(B) cohesion of liquid particles
(C) surface tension
(D) None of the above

The correct answer is (C) surface tension
Explanation: Capillary action occurs due to the surface tension of a liquid, causing it to rise in small diameter tubes against gravity.

  1. In a centrifugal pump casing, the flow of water conforms to

(A) radial flow
(B) free vortex flow
(C) spiral flow
(D) forced vortex motion

The correct answer is (C) spiral flow
Explanation: In a centrifugal pump, the water follows a spiral or radial flow pattern due to the rotation of the impeller.

  1. The pressure drop in a pipe flow is directly proportional to the mean velocity. It is suggested that the

(A) flow is laminar
(B) flow is turbulent
(C) pipe is smooth
(D) pipe is rough

The correct answer is (A) flow is laminar
Explanation: In laminar flow, the pressure drop is directly proportional to the mean velocity, following a linear relationship.

  1. The centre of gravity of the volume of liquid displaced by an immersed body is called

(A) wet CG
(B) centre of buoyancy
(C) metacentre
(D) wet centre

The correct answer is (B) centre of buoyancy
Explanation: The center of buoyancy is the center of gravity of the displaced liquid volume, and it acts through the center of mass of the displaced fluid.

  1. Atmospheric pressure held in terms of water column is

(A) 7.5 m
(B) 8.5 m
(C) 9.81 m
(D) 10-30 m

The correct answer is (A) 7.5 m
Explanation: Atmospheric pressure is equivalent to a 7.5-meter column of water at standard conditions.

  1. One-dimensional flow means

(A) uniform flow
(B) steady flow
(C) straight line flow
(D) flow which neglects changes in transverse direction

The correct answer is (D) flow which neglects changes in transverse direction
Explanation: One-dimensional flow assumes that the velocity of the fluid only varies in the direction of flow, neglecting variations in the transverse direction.

  1. In the boundary layer, the flow is

(A) viscous and rotational
(B) inviscid and irrotational
(C) inviscid and rotational
(D) viscous and irrotational

The correct answer is (A) viscous and rotational
Explanation: The flow in the boundary layer is viscous and rotational because the fluid's velocity changes with proximity to the surface, causing shear stress.

  1. At the point of boundary layer separation

(A) shear stress is maximum
(B) shear stress is zero
(C) velocity is negative
(D) density variation is maximum

The correct option is (B) Shear stress is zero
Explanation: Shear stress is zero at the point of boundary layer separation.

  1. Surface tension is due to

(A) cohesion only
(B) adhesion only
(C) cohesion and adhesion only
(D) neither cohesion nor adhesion.

The correct option is (C) Cohesion and adhesion only
Explanation: Surface tension is due to cohesion and adhesion only.

  1. The continuity equation represents conservation of

(A) mass
(B) momentum
(C) energy
(D) vortices

The correct option is (A) Mass
Explanation: The continuity equation represents conservation of mass.

  1. In automobiles, Hooke’s point is used between which of the following?

(A) Clutch and gearbox
(B) Gearbox and differential
(C) Differential and wheel
(D) Flywheel and clutch

The correct option is (B) Gearbox and differential
Explanation: Hooke’s point is used between the gearbox and differential.

  1. A ball and socket joint constitutes a spherical pair having degree(s) of freedom.

(A) no
(B) one
(C) two
(D) three

The correct option is (D) Three
Explanation: A ball and socket joint constitutes a spherical pair having three degrees of freedom.

  1. Cam and follower mechanism constitutes a kinematic pair of the types

(A) lower and open
(B) higher and open
(C) lower and closed
(D) higher and closed

The correct option is (C) Lower and closed
Explanation: Cam and follower mechanism constitutes a kinematic pair of the types lower and closed.

  1. A pair is termed as higher pair when relative motion between two elements of the pair is

(A) turning only
(B) sliding only
(C) rolling only
(D) partly sliding and partly turning

The correct option is (D) Partly sliding and partly turning
Explanation: A pair is termed as higher pair when relative motion between two elements of the pair is partly sliding and partly turning.

  1. The gears employed for connecting two non-intersecting and non- parallel, i.e., non-coplanar shafts are

(A) bevel gears
(B) spiral gears
(C) helical gears
(D) miter gears

The correct option is (B) Spiral gears
Explanation: The gears employed for connecting two non-intersecting and non-parallel shafts are spiral gears.

  1. A kinematic chain becomes a mechanism when

(A) first link is fixed
(B) all links are fixed
(C) any one of the links is fixed
(D) None of the links is fixed

The correct option is (A) First link is fixed
Explanation: A kinematic chain becomes a mechanism when the first link is fixed.

  1. In a kinematic chain, the minimum number required is of kinematic pairs

(A) one
(B) two
(C) three
(D) four

The correct option is (C) Three
Explanation: In a kinematic chain, the minimum number required of kinematic pairs is three.

  1. The function of a governor is to

(A) smoothen the fluctuations of speed cyclic
(B) help to start the engine
(C) take care of output fluctuations and control the input accordingly
(D) store up energy and give up the same whenever required during a cycle

The correct option is (A) Smoothen the fluctuations of speed cyclic
Explanation: The function of a governor is to smoothen the fluctuations of speed cyclic.

  1. A flywheel influences the

(A) mean speed of the engine
(B) mean torque developed by the engine
(C) variation of load demand on the engine
(D) cyclic fluctuations of speed when delivering constant output

The correct option is (D) Cyclic fluctuations of speed when delivering constant output
Explanation: A flywheel influences the cyclic fluctuations of speed when delivering constant output.

  1. When a cone is cut by planes at different angles, the curves of intersection are called

(A) cycloid
(B) involute
(C) trochoid
(D) conic WEL

The correct option is (D) Conic WEL
Explanation: When a cone is cut by planes at different angles, the curves of intersection are called conic WEL.

  1. The section view drawing in which one-fourth of an object has been marked for removal is known as a section.

(A) full
(B) half
(C) quarter
(D) None of the above

The correct option is (C) Quarter
Explanation: The section view drawing in which one-fourth of an object has been marked for removal is known as a quarter section.

  1. Which is an angled surface used on cylinders to make them easier to handle?

(A) Fillet
(B) Taper
(C) Lug
(D) Chamfer

The correct option is (D) Chamfer
Explanation: A chamfer is an angled surface used on cylinders to make them easier to handle.

  1. The type of line that projects from an object for the express purpose of locating a dimension is a/an line.

(A) visible
(B) hidden
(C) extension
(D) dimension

The correct option is (C) Extension
Explanation: The type of line that projects from an object for the express purpose of locating a dimension is an extension line.

  1. Welding drawing is a special type of which kind of drawing?

(A) Symbol
(B) Assembly
(C) Perspective
(D) Isometric

The correct option is (B) Assembly
Explanation: Welding drawing is a special type of assembly drawing.

  1. Drafters should use a in-see section view of a mechanical part that includes the cylindrical view of a threaded hole.

(A) centre line
(B) hatch line
(C) polyline
(D) dimension line

The correct option is (A) Centre line
Explanation: Drafters should use a centre line in the section view of a mechanical part that includes the cylindrical view of a threaded hole.

  1. Objects that are symmetric can be shown effectively using which type of section?

(A) Quarter section
(B) Half section
(C) Full section
(D) Symmetric section

The correct option is (B) Half section
Explanation: Objects that are symmetric can be shown effectively using a half section.

  1. The gears transmit power between shafts whose axes intersect at any angle are

(A) worm gears
(B) spur gears
(C) bevel gears
(D) racks

The correct option is (C) Bevel gears
Explanation: The gears that transmit power between shafts whose axes intersect at any angle are bevel gears.

  1. In isometric projections, all distances are approximately which percentage of their true size?

(A) 120 percent
(B) 80 percent
(C) 50 percent
(D) 20 percent

The correct option is (B) 80 percent
Explanation: In isometric projections, all distances are approximately 80 percent of their true size.

  1. What is the type of triangle if the sides of a triangle are unequal?

(A) Isosceles triangle
(B) Acute triangle
(C) Equilateral triangle
(D) Scalene triangle

The correct option is (D) Scalene triangle
Explanation: A triangle with unequal sides is called a scalene triangle.

  1. What is the quadrilateral if all the four sides are equal but only the opposite angles are equal?

(A) Rectangle
(B) Rhombus
(C) Trapezoid
(D) Square

The correct option is (B) Rhombus
Explanation: A quadrilateral with all four sides equal and only opposite angles equal is a rhombus.

  1. The first law of thermodynamics refers to conservation of

(A) energy
(B) mass
(C) force
(D) momentum

The correct option is (A) Energy
Explanation: The first law of thermodynamics refers to the conservation of energy.

  1. Heat supplied to a system equals the work done in case of a non-flow. process carried out

(A) isochorically
(B) isobarically
(C) isothermally
(D) adiabatically

The correct option is (A) Isochorically
Explanation: Heat supplied to a system equals the work done in case of a non-flow process carried out isochorically.

  1. Change in enthalpy in a closed system is equal to heat transferred, if the reversible process takes place at constant

(A) temperature
(B) internal energy
(C) pressure
(D) entropy

The correct option is (C) Pressure
Explanation: Change in enthalpy in a closed system is equal to heat transferred if the reversible process takes place at constant pressure.

  1. A gas turbine works on

(A) Rankine cycle
(B) Carnot cycle
(C) Otto cycle
(D) Brayton cycle

The correct option is (D) Brayton cycle
Explanation: A gas turbine works on the Brayton cycle.

  1. Expansion of hot gases in an IC engine can be approximated to an

(A) isothermal process
(B) adiabatic process
(C) isobaric process
(D) isochoric process

The correct option is (B) Adiabatic process
Explanation: Expansion of hot gases in an IC engine can be approximated to an adiabatic process.

  1. Which one of the following thermo- dynamic processes approximate the steaming of food in a pressure cooker?

(A) Isenthalpic
(B) Isobaric
(C) Isochoric
(D) Isothermal

The correct option is (B) Isobaric
Explanation: The thermodynamic process that approximates the steaming of food in a pressure cooker is isobaric.

  1. For steady flow through an insulated horizontal constant diameter pipe, which property remains constant?

(A) Enthalpy
(B) Internal energy
(C) Entropy
(D) Volume

The correct option is (A) Enthalpy
Explanation: For steady flow through an insulated horizontal constant diameter pipe, enthalpy remains constant.

  1. A heat engine is supplied with 2512 kJ/min of heat at 650 °C. Heat rejection with 900 kJ/min takes place at 100 °C. This type of heat engine is

(A) ideal
(B) irreversible
(C) impossible
(D) practical

The correct option is (B) Irreversible
Explanation: The heat engine described is an irreversible type due to the heat rejection at a lower temperature.

  1. Isothermal and adiabatic processes are identical

(A) at saturation temperature
(B) at critical temperature
(C) below 0 °C temperature
(D) at absolute zero temperature

The correct option is (B) At critical temperature
Explanation: Isothermal and adiabatic processes are identical at the critical temperature.

  1. A process which does not dissipate available energy is known as

(A) adiabatic process
(B) isothermal process
(C) ideal process
(D) frictionless process

The correct option is (C) Ideal process
Explanation: A process that does not dissipate available energy is known as an ideal process.

  1. The ability of gasoline to resist detonation during combustion is given by

(A) octane number
(B) cetane number
(C) iso-octane number
(D) heptane number

The correct option is (A) Octane number
Explanation: The ability of gasoline to resist detonation during combustion is given by the octane number.

  1. The value of extensive property is essentially dependent on

(A) mass or extent of the system
(B) interaction of the system with its surroundings
(C) nature of boundaries, rigid or flexible
(D) path followed by the system going from one state to another

The correct option is (A) Mass or extent of the system
Explanation: The value of an extensive property is essentially dependent on the mass or extent of the system.

  1. The artificial draught normally designed to produce

(A) less smoke
(B) more draught
(C) less chimney gas temperature
(D) All of the above

The correct option is (D) All of the above
Explanation: The artificial draught is normally designed to produce less smoke, more draught, and less chimney gas temperature.

  1. In jet type condensers

(A) cooling water passes through tubes and steam surrounds them
(B) steam passes through tubes and cooling water surrounds them
(C) steam and cooling water mix
(D) steam and cooling water do not mix

The correct option is (C) Steam and cooling water mix
Explanation: In jet type condensers, steam and cooling water mix.

  1. Compounding of steam turbine is done for

(A) reducing the work done
(B) increasing the rotor speed
(C) reducing the rotor speed
(D) balancing the turbine

The correct option is (C) Reducing the rotor speed
Explanation: Compounding of steam turbine is done for reducing the rotor speed.

  1. India’s first nuclear power plant was installed at

(A) Tarapur
(B) Kota
(C) Kalpakkam
(D) None of the above

The correct option is (A) Tarapur
Explanation: India’s first nuclear power plant was installed at Tarapur.

  1. The average ash content in Indian coal is about

(A) 5%
(B) 10%
(C) 15%
(D) 20%

The correct option is (C) 15%
Explanation: The average ash content in Indian coal is about 15%.

  1. Which of the following safety devices is used to protect the boiler when the water level falls below a minimum level?

(A) Water level indicator
(B) Fusible plug
(C) Blow-off cock
(D) Safety valve

The correct option is (B) Fusible plug
Explanation: The fusible plug is used to protect the boiler when the water level falls below a minimum level.

  1. is a water-tube boiler.

(A) Benson
(B) Stirling
(C) Cochran
(D) LaMont

The correct option is (A) Benson
Explanation: Benson is a water-tube boiler.

  1. The major shortcoming of fire-tube boilers is

(A) high cost
(B) requirement of high draught
(C) need of highly skilled labour
(D) size and pressure limitation. inherent in design

The correct option is (D) Size and pressure limitation, inherent in design
Explanation: The major shortcoming of fire-tube boilers is the size and pressure limitation inherent in the design.

  1. The angle between face and flank of the single point cutting tool is known as

(A) rake angle ст
(B) clearance angle
(C) lip angle
(D) point angle

The correct option is (D) Point angle
Explanation: The angle between the face and flank of the single point cutting tool is known as the point angle.

  1. The purpose of providing side rake angle on the cutting tool is to

(A) control chip flow
(B) strengthen the tool edge
(C) break chip
(D) avoid work from rubbing against tool

The correct option is (A) Control chip flow
Explanation: The purpose of providing a side rake angle on the cutting tool is to control chip flow.

  1. In a machining process, the percentage of heat carried away by the chip is typically

(A) 5%
(B) 25%
(C) 50%
(D) 75%

The correct option is (D) 75%
Explanation: In a machining process, the percentage of heat carried away by the chip is typically 75%.

  1. Which of the following methods should be used for turning internal tapers only?

(A) Tailstock offset
(B) Taper attachment
(C) Form tool
(D) Compound rest

The correct option is (A) Tailstock offset
Explanation: Tailstock offset should be used for turning internal tapers only.

  1. Removal of metal by feeding the work part a rotating multipoint cutter is known as

(A) grinding
(B) broaching
(C) milling
(D) burnishing

The correct option is (C) Milling
Explanation: Removal of metal by feeding the work part a rotating multipoint cutter is known as milling.

  1. Grinding is an operation.

(A) facing
(B) forming
(C) dressing
(D) surface finishing

The correct option is (D) Surface finishing
Explanation: Grinding is a surface finishing operation.

  1. In which operation the tool does not rotate?

(A) Planning
(B) Grinding
(C) Drilling
(D) Milling

The correct option is (A) Planning
Explanation: In planning, the tool does not rotate.

  1. Which of the following is a type of fusion welding?

(A) Ultrasonic welding
(B) Friction welding
(C) Carbon arc welding
(D) Forge welding

The correct option is (C) Carbon arc welding
Explanation: Carbon arc welding is a type of fusion welding.

  1. Which of the following is a solid-state welding?

(A) Projection, ultrasonic and electron beam welding OP
(B) Friction stir, projection and laser beam welding
(C) Projection, ultrasonic diffusion welding and
(D) explosive, diffusion and electron beam welding

The correct answer is (C) Projection, ultrasonic, diffusion welding.
Explanation: Solid-state welding refers to welding processes that join materials without melting them. The options listed in (C) are all solid-state welding processes: - Projection welding: a resistance welding process that uses a projection on one of the workpieces to concentrate the welding current. - Ultrasonic welding: a process that uses high-frequency vibrations to create friction and join materials. - Diffusion welding: a process that uses heat and pressure to join materials through diffusion of atoms across the interface.

  1. In AutoCAD, the 3-D commands on the modelling toolbar include

(A) sphere
(B) extrude
(C) box
(D) All of the above

The correct option is (D) All of the above
Explanation: The 3-D commands on the modelling toolbar in AutoCAD include sphere, extrude, and box.

  1. The rotational analogue of force in linear motion is

(A) couple
(B) torque
(C) moment of momentum.
(D) moment of inertia

The correct option is (B) Torque
Explanation: The rotational analogue of force in linear motion is torque.

  1. The slope on the road generally provided on the curves is known as

(A) angle of repose
(B) angle of friction
(C) angle of banking
(D) angle of reaction

The correct option is (C) Angle of banking
Explanation: The slope on the road generally provided on curves is known as the angle of banking.

  1. The radius of gyration of a circular area of radius with respect to centroidal axis is

(A) 0-1r
(B) 0-2г
(C) 0.5г
(D) 0.7г

The correct option is (C) 0.5г
Explanation: The radius of gyration of a circular area of radius with respect to centroidal axis is 0.5г.

  1. The locus of instantaneous centre of a moving rigid body is

(A) involute
(B) cycloid
(C) epicycloid
(D) centroid

The correct option is (B) Cycloid
Explanation: The locus of the instantaneous center of a moving rigid body is a cycloid.

  1. Which of the following is a fire-tube boiler?

(A) Babcock and Wilcox
(B) Stirling
(C) Cochran
(D) None of the above

The correct option is (C) Cochran
Explanation: Cochran is a fire-tube boiler.

  1. The unit of force in SI system is

(A) newton
(B) dyne
(C) kgf
(D) newton-metre

The correct option is (A) Newton
Explanation: The unit of force in the SI system is the newton.

  1. Which of the following is not a vector quantity?

(A) Force
(B) Displacement
(C) Distance
(D) Weight

The correct option is (C) Distance
Explanation: Distance is not a vector quantity; it is a scalar quantity.


APSC Junior Engineer Question Paper (Mechanical) (2023) , APSC General Studies 2023 Questions, APSC Exam Solved Paper PDF, APSC Previous Year Question Paper, APSC Question Paper with Answers

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