APSC Scientific Officer Biology and General Studies (2023) Question Paper with Answers

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

Test Booklet No. : 00333

TEST BOOKLET

(BIOLOGY AND GENERAL STUDIES)

Time Allowed: 2 Hours Full Marks: 100


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Directions for giving the answers: Directions for answering questions have already been issued to the respective candidates in the ‘Instructions for marking in the OMR Answer-Sheet’ along with the Admit Card and Specimen Copy of the OMR Answer-Sheet.

Example:
Suppose the following question is asked:

The capital of Bangladesh is

(A) Chennai
(B) London
(C) Dhaka
(D) Dhubri

You will have four alternatives in the Answer-Sheet for your response corresponding to each question of the Test Booklet as below:

In the above illustration, if your chosen response is alternative (C), i.e., Dhaka, then the same should be marked on the Answer-Sheet by blackening the relevant circle with a Black/Blue ballpoint pen only as below:

The example shown above is the only correct method of answering.

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N.B. There will be negative marking @ 0-25 per 1 (one) mark against each wrong answer.


  1. By which of the following processes, the genome of bacteria is prevented by its endonucleases?

(A) Methylation at restriction sites
(B) Immune mechanism
(C) Nuclease resistant genome
(D) Endonucleases are not very effective on bacterial genome

The correct option is (A)
Explanation: Methylation at restriction sites protects the bacterial genome from cleavage by its own endonucleases by adding a methyl group to the DNA at the restriction sites, preventing recognition by the endonuclease.

  1. The acrosome of the sperm is formed from the

(A) mitochondria
(B) centrosome
(C) lysosome
(D) Golgi bodies

The correct option is (D)
Explanation: The acrosome of the sperm is formed from the Golgi bodies, which process and package enzymes necessary for fertilization.

  1. Which of the following translational modifications of proteins does not occur in the lumen of ER?

(A) Glycosylation
(B) Ubiquitination
(C) Conformation folding formation structure of and quaternary
(D) Formation of disulphide bonds

The correct option is (B)
Explanation: Ubiquitination is a translational modification that occurs in the cytoplasm, not in the lumen of the ER.

  1. In dark-field microscopy, light is scattered by the specimen, resulting in

(A) a bright background with dark objects
(B) a dark background with bright objects
(C) colored images of the specimen
(D increased magnification com- pared to bright field

The correct option is (B)
Explanation: In dark-field microscopy, light is scattered by the specimen, resulting in a dark background with bright objects.

  1. Which checkpoint in the cell cycle ensures DNA replication is complete before mitosis begins?

(A) G₁ checkpoint
(B) Go checkpoint
(C) M checkpoint
(D) There are no checkpoints

The correct option is (C)
Explanation: The M checkpoint in the cell cycle ensures that DNA replication is complete before mitosis begins, preventing errors in cell division.

  1. Hemoglobin, the oxygen-carrying protein in red blood cells, is an example of a

(A) fibrous protein.
(B) globular protein
(C) simple protein
(D) conjugated protein

The correct option is (B)
Explanation: Hemoglobin is a globular protein, which means it is spherical and water-soluble, crucial for its function in transporting oxygen.

  1. The human leukocyte antigen (HLA) system is a group of genes that code for cell surface proteins that play a vital role in

(A) nutrient transport
(B) immune response and self- recognition
(C) muscle contraction
(D) blood clotting

The correct option is (B)
Explanation: The human leukocyte antigen (HLA) system is essential for immune response and self-recognition by presenting antigens to immune cells.

  1. In a sexual assault investigation, the presence of prostate-specific antigen (PSA) in a semen stain can

(A) identify the specific DNA profile of the perpetrator
(B) indicate the perpetrator’s age
(C) provide a presumptive test for semen
(D) determine the time since the assault

The correct option is (C)
Explanation: PSA (prostate-specific antigen) can provide a presumptive test for semen in forensic investigations, as it is found in semen.

  1. Signal transduction pathways allow cells to respond to external stimuli by

(A) directly activating genes
(B) relaying signals through a series of molecules within the cell
(C) increasing the rate of protein degradation
(D) blocking the cell cycle at a checkpoint

The correct option is (B)
Explanation: Signal transduction pathways relay signals through a series of molecules within the cell to help it respond to external stimuli, like hormones or environmental signals.

  1. In a zwitterion, the overall charge of the molecule is

(A) positive
(B) negative
(C) neutral
(D) It is not relevant to charge on molecule

The correct option is (C)
Explanation: In a zwitterion, the overall charge of the molecule is neutral, as it contains both a positive and a negative charge but no net charge.

  1. Who is considered the father of forensic medicine?

(A) Albert Einstein
(B) Mathieu Orfila
(C) James Marsh
(D) Alphonse Bertillon.

The correct option is (B)
Explanation: Mathieu Orfila is considered the father of forensic medicine, with significant contributions to toxicology and criminal law.

  1. The development of the fingerprint identification system is attributed to

(A) Alphonse Bertillon
(B) Hans Gross
(C) Francis Galton
(D) Sir William Herschel

The correct option is (C)
Explanation: Francis Galton is credited with the development of the fingerprint identification system, which is now widely used for personal identification.

  1. The growing phase of hair is called as

(A) anagen
(B) catagen
(C) telogen
(D) None of the above

The correct option is (A)
Explanation: The growing phase of hair is called anagen, where the hair is actively growing and undergoing cell division.

  1. In forensic casework, prostate- specific antigen (PSA) testing is primarily used in

(A) arson investigations
(B) drug trafficking cases
(C) sexual assault investigations
(D) counterfeit currency analysis

The correct option is (C)
Explanation: In forensic casework, prostate-specific antigen (PSA) testing is primarily used in sexual assault investigations to confirm the presence of semen.

  1. Identifying endangered wood is important because

(A) it may have inferior quality for construction
(B) it helps to determine the age of a tree
(C) it supports sustainable forestry practices
(D) it affects the taste of furniture

The correct option is (C)
Explanation: Identifying endangered wood is important to support sustainable forestry practices, preventing illegal logging and promoting conservation.

  1. Gram-positive bacteria typically appear in a Gram stain as

(A) pink or red
(B) violet or purple
(C) yellow or orange
(D) colorless

The correct option is (B)
Explanation: Gram-positive bacteria typically appear violet or purple in a Gram stain, due to the thick peptidoglycan layer that retains the crystal violet dye.

  1. Which of the following insect life stages is most useful for estimating the post-mortem interval (PMI)?

(A) Eggs
(B) Larvae
(C) Pupae
(D) Adults

The correct option is (B)
Explanation: The larvae of insects are most useful for estimating the post-mortem interval (PMI), as they provide a timeline for decomposition.

  1. Jaffe color test using picric acid to convert creatinine to colored creatinine picrate is used for the detection of

(A) vaginal secretion
(B) menstrual blood
(C) urine
(D) vomitus

The correct option is (C)
Explanation: The Jaffe color test using picric acid is used to detect urine, as it reacts with creatinine to form a colored creatinine picrate complex.

  1. A body buried deep underground will likely experience

(A) a rapid succession of insect colonization
(B) a slower and delayed insect succession
(C) a unique set of insect species not found above ground
(D) It will not affect insect succession

The correct option is (B)
Explanation: A body buried deep underground will likely experience a slower and delayed insect succession, as the decomposition process is slower in the absence of light and air.

  1. The presence of trichomes on plant material can be a clue for the presence of

(A) opium
(B) cannabis
(C) coca plant
(D) Psilocybe mushrooms

The correct option is (B)
Explanation: Trichomes on plant material can be a clue for the presence of cannabis, as they are unique to the plant and can be used for identification.

  1. Common examples of cell lines used in research include

(A) yeast cultures
(B) HeLa cells
(C) pollen grains
(D) muscle fibers

The correct option is (B)
Explanation: HeLa cells are commonly used in research as they are immortal cell lines derived from cervical cancer cells and are widely used in medical and biological studies.

  1. Ti plasmid stands for

(A) tissue-infecting plasmid
(B) tumor-inducing plasmid
(C) transmissible island plasmid
(D) transferable inheritance plasmid

The correct option is (B)
Explanation: Ti plasmid stands for Tumor-Inducing plasmid, which is found in the bacterium Agrobacterium tumefaciens and is used in plant genetic engineering.

  1. Which is the correct order from strongest to weakest bond?

(A) Ionic bond Covalent bond > Hydrogen bond > van der Waals interaction
(B) Ionic bond Covalent bond interaction Hydrogen bond > van der Waals
(C) Covalent bond Hydrogen bond interaction Ionic bond > van der Waals
(D) Hydrogen bond Covalent bond interaction Ionic bond > van der Waals

The correct option is (A)
Explanation: The correct order from strongest to weakest bond is: Ionic bond > Covalent bond > Hydrogen bond > van der Waals interaction.

  1. Which type of cell has the potential to develop into all cell types of an organism, including extraembryonic structures like the placenta?

(A) Pluripotent cell
(B) Multipotent cell
(C) Differentiated cell
(D) Totipotent cell

The correct option is (D)
Explanation: Totipotent cells have the potential to develop into all cell types of an organism, including extraembryonic structures like the placenta.

  1. Dolly, the sheep was significant because she was the first mammal cloned from

(A) embryonic stem cells
(B) adult somatic cells.
(C) egg cells
(D) sperm cells

The correct option is (B)
Explanation: Dolly the sheep was significant because she was the first mammal cloned from adult somatic cells, which demonstrated that differentiated cells can be reprogrammed to form a whole organism.

  1. The primary purpose of Northern blotting is to

(A) sequence a specific gene
(B) identify mutations in DNA
(C) quantify and identify specific RNA molecules
(D) amplify analysis DNA for further

The correct option is (C)
Explanation: The primary purpose of Northern blotting is to quantify and identify specific RNA molecules in a sample, which can be used to study gene expression.

  1. Stem cells are characterized by their abilities to

(A) perform specialized functions
(B) self-renew and differentiate into other cell types
(C) secrete large amounts of hormones of
(D) have a short life span

The correct option is (B)
Explanation: Stem cells are characterized by their ability to self-renew and differentiate into various cell types, making them versatile in regenerative medicine and research.

  1. The T-DNA region of a bacterial plasmid codes for the production of

(A) proteins involved in bacterial replication
(B) genes beneficial to the plant host
(C) viral replication machinery
(D) toxins

The correct option is (B)
Explanation: The T-DNA region of a bacterial plasmid codes for genes beneficial to the plant host, such as those for plant growth promotion and tumor formation.

  1. Compared to other protein separation techniques like SDS- PAGE, IEF offers the advantage of

(A) higher resolution for proteins. with similar molecular weights
(B) faster separation times
(C) direct visualization of protein bands
(D) no benefit above SDS-PAGE

The correct option is (A)
Explanation: Compared to other protein separation techniques like SDS-PAGE, IEF (Isoelectric Focusing) offers the advantage of higher resolution for proteins with similar molecular weights.

  1. CRISPR-Cas9 is a powerful tool for gene editing that allows scientists to

(A) introduce new genes into cells
(B) modify existing genes in a targeted way
(C) deliver therapeutic through viral vectors genes
(D) amplify specific DNA sequences.

The correct option is (B)
Explanation: CRISPR-Cas9 is a powerful gene editing tool that allows scientists to modify existing genes in a targeted way, enabling precise genetic modifications.

  1. A cesium chloride will separate DNA based on

(A) absorption
(B) resorption
(C) density
(D) adhesion

The correct option is (C)
Explanation: Cesium chloride (CsCl) will separate DNA based on density during ultracentrifugation, allowing for the isolation of DNA based on its buoyant density.

  1. Short tandem repeat (STR) analysis is a commonly used technique for

(A) sequencing entire genomes
(B) identifying individuals based on specific DNA markers
(C) visualizing chromosomes under a microscope
(D) detecting mutations in genes

The correct option is (B)
Explanation: Short tandem repeat (STR) analysis is commonly used for identifying individuals based on specific DNA markers, which are highly variable between people.

  1. Who is widely recognized as the father of DNA profiling?

(A) H. G. Khorana
(B) Alec Jeffreys
(C) Kary Mullis
(D) E. M. Southern

The correct option is (B)
Explanation: Alec Jeffreys is widely recognized as the father of DNA profiling due to his discovery of DNA fingerprinting techniques used for identifying individuals based on their genetic profiles.

  1. The nitrogenous bases in DNA are divided into two categories: purines and pyrimidines. Examples of purines include

(A) adenine (A) and thymine (T)
(B) adenine (A) and guanine (G)
(C) cytosine (C) and uracil (U)
(D) guanine (G) and thymine (T)

The correct option is (B)
Explanation: Purines are adenine (A) and guanine (G), which are one of the two categories of nitrogenous bases in DNA.

  1. The length of amelogenin locus in Y-chromosomes is

(A) 114 bp
(B) 106 bp
(C) 110 bp
(D) 112 bp

The correct option is (B)
Explanation: The length of the amelogenin locus in Y-chromosomes is 106 base pairs (bp), which is used in sex determination tests.

  1. The Wildlife (Protection) Act was enacted in India in which year?

(A) 1952
(B) 1962
(C) 1972
(D) 1980

The correct option is (C)
Explanation: The Wildlife (Protection) Act was enacted in India in 1972 to protect wildlife species and their habitats.

  1. Which of the following is a legally protected area in India with the strictest regulations activity? on human

(A) Wildlife Sanctuary
(B) National Park
(C) Biosphere Reserve
(D) Conservation Reserve

The correct option is (B)
Explanation: A National Park is a legally protected area with the strictest regulations on human activity to conserve biodiversity and protect ecosystems.

  1. Who discovered the PCR technique?

(A) Kary Mullis
(B) Alexander Fleming
(C) Alec Jeffreys.
(D) H. G. Khorana

The correct option is (A)
Explanation: Kary Mullis is credited with discovering the PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) technique, which revolutionized molecular biology by enabling the amplification of specific DNA sequences.

  1. The Wildlife Institute of India (WII) is a premier national institute for wildlife research, education and training located in

(A) Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh
(B) Shillong, Meghalaya
(C) Dehradun, Uttarakhand
(D) Ranchi, Jharkhand

The correct option is (C)
Explanation: The Wildlife Institute of India (WII) is located in Dehradun, Uttarakhand, and is a premier institute for wildlife research and training.

  1. Which of the following is not a common method for DNA extraction?

(A) Gel electrophoresis
(B) Organic extraction (phenol- chloroform)
(C) Chelex 100 resin method
(D) Salt-detergent extraction.

The correct option is (A)
Explanation: Gel electrophoresis is not a method for DNA extraction but is used to separate DNA fragments based on size.

  1. Which of the following methods relies on the specific chemical cleavage of DNA at different nucleotides?

(A) Sanger sequencing
(B) Maxam-Gilbert sequencing
(C) Ion Torrent sequencing
(D) Single-molecule real-time (SMRT) sequencing

The correct option is (B)
Explanation: Maxam-Gilbert sequencing relies on the specific chemical cleavage of DNA at different nucleotides to determine the sequence of a DNA molecule.

  1. The first step in DNA isolation typically involves cell lysis. What is the purpose of this step?

(A) To remove inhibitors of DNA amplification
(B) To purify the DNA
(C) To break open the cells and release the DNA
(D) To concentrate the DNA

The correct option is (C)
Explanation: The purpose of cell lysis in DNA isolation is to break open the cells and release the DNA into the solution for further purification and analysis.

  1. The study of hair is known as

(A) histology
(B) phytology
(C) lithology
(D) trichology

The correct option is (D)
Explanation: The study of hair is known as trichology, which involves analyzing hair samples for forensic purposes or understanding hair biology.

  1. What was the primary purpose of the DNA Bill in India?

(A) To regulate genetic modification of crops
(B) To establish a DNA data bank for identification purposes
(C) To provide funding for DNA research projects
(D) To ban the use of DNA testing in paternity suits

The correct option is (B)
Explanation: The primary purpose of the DNA Bill in India is to establish a DNA data bank for identification purposes, enhancing forensic and legal processes.

  1. Which of the following is the primary focus of quality control (QC) in a forensic laboratory?

(A) Designing protocols for new forensic techniques
(B) Ensuring the accuracy and reliability of analytical results.
(C) Overseeing the training and competency of laboratory personnel
(D) Maintaining a clean and orga- nized laboratory environment

The correct option is (B)
Explanation: The primary focus of quality control (QC) in a forensic laboratory is ensuring the accuracy and reliability of analytical results to maintain the integrity of forensic investigations.

  1. The technology used to predict physical characteristics from DNA is called

(A) DNA fingerprinting
(B) forensic DNA phenotyping
(C) DNA cloning
(D) genetic engineering

The correct option is (B)
Explanation: Forensic DNA phenotyping is the technology used to predict physical characteristics from DNA, such as appearance and ancestry.

  1. Name the type of blood, when it does not show agglutination reaction with anti-A or anti-B.

(A) AB-ve
(B) Negative type
(C) Bombay type
(D) Rh negative type

The correct option is (C)
Explanation: Bombay blood type does not show agglutination with anti-A or anti-B antibodies, which is why it is unique among blood groups.

  1. Which Ministry is responsible for the National IPR Policy?

(A) The Ministry of Education
(B) The Ministry of Commerce
(C) The Ministry of Culture
(D) The Ministry of Science and Technology

The correct option is (B)
Explanation: The Ministry of Commerce is responsible for the National IPR (Intellectual Property Rights) Policy in India, overseeing intellectual property management and protection.

  1. Which of the following statements is false about mtDNA testing in genetic genealogy?

(A) mtDNA is passed down from mother to child (relatively unchanged).
(B) mtDNA can be used to identify maternal ancestors.
(C) mtDNA remains the same for siblings with different fathers and the same mother.
(D) mtDNA testing can be used to identify the father.

The correct option is (D)
Explanation: mtDNA testing in genetic genealogy can be used to identify maternal ancestors, but it cannot be used to identify the father.

  1. Which of the following international standards does NABL use for accrediting testing and calibration laboratories?

(A) ISO 9001
(B) ISO/IEC 17025
(C) ISO 14001
(D) All of the above

The correct option is (B)
Explanation: NABL accredits testing and calibration laboratories based on the ISO/IEC 17025 international standard, ensuring competence and reliability in laboratory testing.

  1. The part of the skeleton that is not as hard as bone and which can be bent is called

(A) vertebrae
(B) carpel
(C) cartilage
(D) All of the above

The correct option is (C)
Explanation: Cartilage is a flexible, rubbery tissue found in various parts of the body, such as the nose and joints.

  1. For a long time it was believed that life originated from dead and decaying matters, the theory is known as

(A) Louis Pasteur theory
(B) Hindenburg theory
(C) Spontaneous Generation theory
(D) Big Bang theory

The correct option is (C)
Explanation: This theory suggested that life could arise from non-living matter, which was later disproven.

  1. Sometimes it happens that a seed germinates within the mother plant before its detachment. The phenomenon is called

(A) vivipary
(B) geopary
(C) neopary
(D) hemopary

The correct option is (A)
Explanation: Vivipary refers to the condition where seeds germinate while still attached to the parent plant.

  1. Boyle’s law is applicable for an

(A) adiabatic process
(B) isothermal process
(C) isobaric process
(D) isochoric process

The correct option is (B)
Explanation: Boyle's law describes the relationship between the pressure and volume of a gas at constant temperature (isothermal process).

  1. Which of the following can be treated as a biocontrol agent for plant diseases?

(A) Trichoderma
(B) Lactobacillus
(C) Azospirillum
(D) Azotobacter

The correct option is (A)
Explanation: Trichoderma is a fungus used as a biocontrol agent to manage plant diseases.

  1. Among the options, which letter is not found in the periodic table?

(A) W
(B) J
(C) N
(D) X

  1. Which of the following pairs of organelles does not contain DNA?

(A) Nuclear envelope mitochondria and
(B) Mitochondria and lysosome
(C) Chloroplast and vacuole
(D) Lysosome and vacuole

The correct option is (D)
Explanation: Lysosomes and vacuoles do not contain their own DNA, unlike mitochondria and chloroplasts.

  1. A sphere, a cube and a thin circular plate, all of the same material and the same mass are initially heated to the same high temperature. Then which of the following statements is true?

(A) Plate will cool fastest and cube the slowest.
(B) Sphere will cool fastest and cube the slowest.
(C) Plate will cool fastest and sphere the slowest.
(D) Cube will cool fastest and plate the slowest.

The correct option is (A)
Explanation: The plate has a greater surface area for cooling, while the cube has a smaller surface area and thus cools more slowly.

  1. AgCl is crystallized from molten AgCl, containing a little CdCl2. The solid obtained will have

(A) cationic vacancies equal to the number of Cd2+ ions incorporated
(B) cationic vacancies equal to double the number of Cd2+ ions
(C) anionic vacancies
(D) neither cationic nor anionic vacancies

The correct option is (B)
Explanation: The presence of Cd2+ ions creates cationic vacancies in the crystal structure.

  1. A simple harmonic wave is represented as y = 5 sin π / 2 (100t-2x) x and y are in metre, t is in second. The ratio of wave velocity to maximum particle velocity will be

(Α) 2π
(Β) 3π
(C) 4
(D) 5π

The correct option is (C)
Explanation: The wave velocity and maximum particle velocity can be calculated from the given wave equation, leading to a ratio of 4.

  1. Which of the following statements is not true for the amorphous and crystalline solids?

(A) Amorphous solids are isotropic and crystalline solids anisotropic. are
(B) Amorphous solids are short- range order and crystalline solids are long-range order.
(C) Amorphous solids melt at characteristic temperature while crystalline solids melt over a range of temperature.
(D) Amorphous solids have an irregular shape and crystalline solids have a geometrical shape.

The correct option is (C)
Explanation: Crystalline solids melt at a distinct temperature, while amorphous solids melt over a range of temperatures.

  1. Which of the following statements is not true about the hexagonal close packing?

(A) The coordination number is 12.
(B) It has 74% packing efficiency.
(C) Tetrahedral voids of the second layer are covered by the spheres of the third layer.
(D) In this arrangement, spheres of the fourth layer are exactly aligned with those of the first layer.

The correct option is (C)
Explanation: In hexagonal close packing, the tetrahedral voids of the second layer are not covered by the spheres of the third layer.

  1. An electron is projected into a magnetic field with components of velocity parallel and normal to the field. The path followed by electrons will be

(A) straight
(B) parabolic
(C) helical
(D) elliptical.

The correct option is (C)
Explanation: When an electron has both parallel and normal components of velocity, it follows a helical path in a magnetic field.

  1. If you want to convert cooking oil into vegetable ghee, the process that you would use is called

(A) freezing
(B) oxidation
(C) crystallization
(D) hydrogenation

The correct option is (D)
Explanation: Hydrogenation is the process of adding hydrogen to unsaturated fats, converting them into more saturated fats like ghee.

  1. Solid A is very hard electrical insulator in solid as well as in molten state and melts at an extremely high temperature. What type of solid is it?

(A) Ionic solid
(B) Molecular solid
(C) Covalent solid
(D) Metallic solid

The correct option is (C)
Explanation: Covalent solids, like diamond and silicon carbide, are hard insulators with high melting points.

  1. When a non-volatile solid is added to pure water it will

(A) boil above 100 deg * C and freeze above 0 deg * C
(B) boil below 100 deg * C and freeze above 0 deg * C
(C) boil above 100 deg * C and freeze below 0 deg * C
(D) boil below 100 deg * C and freeze below 0 deg * C

The correct option is (C)
Explanation: Adding a non-volatile solute lowers the freezing point and raises the boiling point of the solution.

  1. Ohm’s law is not obeyed by

(A) electrolyte
(B) discharge tube
(C) vacuum tube
(D) All of the above

The correct option is (D)
Explanation: Ohm’s law is not obeyed by electrolytes, discharge tubes, and vacuum tubes because their resistance varies with voltage or current.

  1. What kind of charge is produced when a glass rod is rubbed with silk?

(A) + ve
(B) ve
(C) Both ve and ve
(D) None of the above

The correct option is (A) +ve
Explanation: A glass rod rubbed with silk becomes positively charged.

  1. The plants that are growing in a rocky habitat are known as

(A) xerophytes
(B) lithophytes
(C) hydrophytes
(D) epiphytes

The correct option is (B)
Explanation: Lithophytes are plants that grow on rocks.

  1. Interstitial compounds are formed when small atoms are dropped under the curved lattice of metals. Whether the following is not the characteristic property of interstitial compounds?

(A) They have high melting points into pure metals
(B) They are very hard
(C) They retain conductivity metallic
(D) They reactive are chemically very

The correct option is (D)
Explanation: Interstitial compounds tend to be very hard, have high melting points, and retain metallic conductivity, but they are typically less reactive.

  1. 1836 is considered crucial in the history of Assamese language and literature because

(A) Assamese was reinstated as the official language of Assam
(B) Bengali was imposed as Assam’s State language
(C) first Assamese novel was published
(D) first Assamese magazine was published

  1. Assam shares its international borders with how many countries?

(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4

The correct option is (B)
Explanation: Assam shares its borders with Bhutan and Bangladesh.

  1. Which of the following State symbols of Assam is not correctly matched?

(A) State Flower-Kopou Phul
(B) State Animal-One-horned rhino
(C) State Tree-Hollong
(D) State Bird-Hornbill

The correct option is (D)
Explanation: The State bird of Assam is the White-winged Wood Duck, not the Hornbill.

  1. Which fauna is commonly known as ‘Hihu’ in the Brahmaputra basin, which has been declared as the State aquatic animal?

(A) Golden mahseer
(B) Dugong
(C) Gangetic river dolphin
(D) Ganges sharks

The correct option is (C)
Explanation: The Gangetic river dolphin, locally known as Hihu, is the state aquatic animal of Assam.

  1. Several States in the Northeastern part of India were carved out by separating them from Assam. Which one of the following pairs is not among them?

(A) Manipur and Meghalaya
(B) Mizoram and Tripura
(C) Arunachal Nagaland Pradesh and
(D) Manipur and Tripura

The correct option is (D)
Explanation: Manipur and Tripura were not separated from Assam, while others like Meghalaya and Mizoram were.

  1. Chao Suhungmung was the first Ahom King to adopt a Hindu title, indicating a move towards an inclusive polity. Which Hindu name did he take?

(A) Swarganarayana
(B) Durlavnarayana
(C) Udayaditya Singha
(D) Jayadhwaj Singha

The correct option is (A)
Explanation: Chao Suhungmung took the Hindu title of Swarganarayana to integrate Hinduism with Ahom traditions.

  1. She was the founder of The All Assam Pradeshik Mahila Samiti. The novel, Abhijatri is also based on her life and achievements. She is

(A) Nalini Bala Devi
(B) Aideu Handique
(C) Chandraprabha Saikiani
(D) Rajbala Handique

The correct option is (C)
Explanation: Chandraprabha Saikiani was a prominent Assamese social worker and the founder of the All Assam Pradeshik Mahila Samiti.

  1. The best passing out cadet of the National Defence Academy, Khadakwasla (Pune) is conferred the

(A) Chhatrapati Shivaji Gold Medal
(B) Lachit Borphukan Gold Medal
(C) Rani Laxmi Bai Gold Medal
(D) President’s Gold Medal

The correct option is (B)
Explanation: The Lachit Borphukan Gold Medal is awarded to the best passing out cadet of the NDA.

  1. is a traditional rice beer prepared by one of the tribal communities of Assam which is the only rice beer having GI tag from Northeastern States.

(A) Feni
(B) Judima
(C) Apong
(D) Rohi

The correct option is (C)
Explanation: Apong, brewed by the Apatani community, is a rice beer from Assam with a GI tag.

  1. Bhogeswar Baruah was the first Arjuna Award winner from Assam in 1966. Who was the second Assamese to win this coveted award of Indian sports in 1987?

(A) Tayabun Nisha
(B) Monalisa Baruah Mehta
(C) Madalasa Hazarika
(D) Toshen Bora

The correct option is (B)
Explanation: Monalisa Baruah Mehta won the Arjuna Award in 1987 for her achievements in athletics.

  1. Poki, presently a museum, is the ancestral house of a doyen of Assamese culture. The house remained an epitome of Indian freedom struggle as during the freedom movement the place attracted many national leaders including Mahatma Gandhi, Jawaharlal Nehru, etc. This house belonged to

(A) Bishnu Prasad Rabha
(B) Dr. Bhupen Hazarika
(C) Phani Sarma
(D) Jyoti Prasad Agarwala

The correct option is (D)
Explanation: Poki was the ancestral home of the renowned Assamese cultural icon, Jyoti Prasad Agarwala.

  1. He was a teacher at Assam Engineering College and writer of Oxanto Electron. His actual name was

(A) Bishnu Medhi
(B) Bimal Medhi
(C) Surendra Kumar Medhi
(D) Saurabh Kumar Chaliha

The correct option is (B)
Explanation: Bimal Medhi was a teacher and the writer of 'Oxanto Electron'.

  1. One famous road of Guwahati was named after him and he was the founder of Assam Tribune and Dainik Asom. Choose his name from the options.

(A) Bhola Borooah
(B) Radha Govinda Baruah.
(C) Padmanath Gohain Baruah
(D) Homen Borgohain

The correct option is (B)
Explanation: Radha Govinda Baruah was the founder of Assam Tribune and Dainik Asom.

  1. She was the niece of legendary filmmaker Pramathesh Chandra Barua and was born in Dhubri in 1934. She was conferred Padma Shri for her contribution in the folk song. She was

(A) Parbati Prasad Barua
(B) Sudeshna Sarma
(C) Pratima Barua Pandey
(D) None of them

The correct option is (C)
Explanation: Pratima Barua Pandey was a renowned folk singer from Assam, who was honored with the Padma Shri.

  1. The first Peasant Uprising in Assam against the British was known as which one of the following?

(A) Patharughat Raijmel
(B) Battle of Itakhuli
(C) Phulaguri Dhawa
(D) Rangiya Raijmel

The correct option is (A)
Explanation: Patharughat Raijmel (1894) was the first peasant uprising in Assam against British rule.

  1. He was a teacher at Gauhati University and was an elected MLA from Naoboicha Assembly during 1967-72. He is

(A) Krishna Kanta Handique
(B) Homen Borgohain
(C) Bijay Krishna Handique
(D) Dr. Bhupen Hazarika

The correct option is (A)
Explanation: Krishna Kanta Handique was an academic and MLA from Assam.

  1. Ramsar Convention was held at Ramsar, Iran, in 1971. Which lake of Assam is covered under this international convention?

(A) Urpad Beel
(B) Majuli
(C) Khamrenga Beel
(D) Deepor Beel

The correct option is (D)
Explanation: Deepor Beel, a Ramsar site, is a wetland located near Guwahati, Assam.

  1. He was born in 1806 in Assam’s Jorhat district, he introduced the tea produced by the Singpho tribe to British Officer Robert Bruce. Later he quit his job at the Assam Tea Company to establish his own Cinnamara tea garden at Cinnamara in Jorhat, thus becoming the first Indian Tea Planter to grow tea commercially. He is

(A) Gunabhiram Barua
(B) Anandaram Dhekial Phukan
(C) Maniram Dewan
(D) Purnananda Singha

The correct option is (C)
Explanation: Maniram Dewan was the first Indian tea planter who established a tea plantation at Cinnamara

  1. Dr. Bhupen Hazarika received his first National Award for Best Music Director in 1975 for which film?

(A) Chameli Memsaab
(B) Era Bator Sur
(C) Aarop
(D) Maniram Dewan

  1. Select the incorrect statement regarding Gunotsav in Assam.

(A) Gunotsav was introduced in Assam in 2017.
(B) Gunotsav, an initiative of the Government of Assam, is conduc- ted covering all Elementary and Secondary Schools (Government) in the State.
(C) Sivasagar district achieved the first position in Gunotsav 2023 and 2024.
(D) In 2024, Gunotsav Assam was also conducted in selected colleges of the State.

The correct option is (C)
Explanation: Gunotsav is a statewide initiative, but Sivasagar did not achieve first position in 2023 and 2024.

  1. Euphemism helps in conveying those ideas which have become social and are embarrassing to mention directly. too

(A) norm
(B) taboo
(C) custom
(D) ideology

The correct option is (B)
Explanation: Euphemism is often used for topics that are considered taboo or socially awkward.

  1. Which of the following is used after a nominative absolute?

(A) Colon
(B) Full stop
(C) Question mark
(D) Comma

The correct option is (D)
Explanation: A comma is used after a nominative absolute to separate it from the rest of the sentence.

  1. Which of the following statements is correct?

(A) My friend who lives in Mumbai is a doctor.
(B) My friend, who lives in Mumbai, is a doctor.
(C) My friend, who lives in Mumbai is a doctor.
(D) My friend who lives in Mumbai, is a doctor.

  1. During conversation, one should patiently and tactfully.

(A) speak; listen
(B) My friend, who lives in Mumbai, is a doctor.
(C) My friend, who lives in Mumbai is a doctor.
(D) My friend who lives in Mumbai, is a doctor.

(A) speak; listen
(B) write; speak
(C) listen; speak
(D) listen; write

The correct option is (C)
Explanation: Active listening is important in conversation before responding.

  1. Identify the segment having grammatical error:

Ramesh sat/in his new vehicle/and went ahead/a drive

(A) Ramesh sat
(B) in his new vehicle
(C) and went ahead
(D) a drive

The correct option is (D)
Explanation: The phrase should be 'drive' or 'for a drive,' not 'a drive'.

  1. Identify the segment having grammatical error: Could you please/confirm me whether you have received/all the items you ordered?

(A) Could you please
(B) confirm me whether
(C) you have received
(D) all the items that you ordered?

The correct option is (B)
Explanation: The correct phrase is 'confirm whether' or 'confirm to me'.

  1. Rearrange the parts of the sentence in correct order:
    On the 3rd of April, 2024

P. off the Taiwan’s east coast
Q. killed by the magnitude 7.4 earthquake
R. that struck in the morning
S. at least 12 people were

(A) PRQS
(B) RSQP
(C) PSOR
(D) SQRP

The correct option is (A)
Explanation: The correct order of the sentence is: 'On the 3rd of April, 2024, at least 12 people were killed by the magnitude 7.4 earthquake that struck off Taiwan’s east coast in the morning'.

  1. Pick the wrongly spelt word.

(A) Distraut
(B) Anxious
(C) Saddened
(D) Disrupted

The correct option is (A)
Explanation: The correct spelling is 'Distraught'.

  1. Choose the synonym for the word Combative’.

(A) Belligerent
(B) Amenable
(C) Uncouth
(D) Disreputable

The correct option is (A)
Explanation: 'Belligerent' means hostile or combative.

  1. Find the suitable antonym for the word ‘Ancillary’.

(A) Primary
(B) Tertiary
(C) Auxiliary
(D) Secondary

The correct option is (A) Primary
Explanation: 'Primary' is the opposite of 'ancillary,' meaning main or essential.


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