DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO
TEST BOOKLET
(CIVIL ENGINEERING AND GENERAL AWARENESS)
Time Allowed: 2 Hours Full Marks: 100
Read the following instructions carefully before you begin to answer the questions:
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Answer-Sheet without marking Series as mentioned above in the space provided for in the Answer-Sheet shall not be evaluated.
All questions carry equal marks.
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Example:
Suppose the following question is asked:
The capital of Bangladesh is
(A) Chennai (B) London (C) Dhaka (D) Dhubri
You will have four alternatives in the Answer-Sheet for your response corresponding to each question Test Booklet as below: of the
In the above illustration, if your chosen response is alternative (C), Le., Dhaka, then the same should be marked on the Answer-Sheet by blackening the relevant circle with a Black/Blue ballpoint pen only as below:
The example shown above is the only correct method of answering.
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N.B. There will be negative marking @ 0-25 per 1 (one) mark against each wrong answer.
Which of the following is not the mode of failure of a gravity dam?
The correct option is (D)
Explanation: Tension failure is not a typical mode of failure for gravity dams, which are designed to resist compressive forces.
For drinking water, iron content is usually restricted to
(A) 0-01 mg per litre (B) 0-1 mg per litre (C) 0-3 mg per litre (D) 1 mg per litre
The correct option is (B)
Explanation: The permissible limit of iron in drinking water is 0.1 mg per litre.
The device used for the removal of oil and grease from sewage is
(A) skimming tank (B) grit chamber (C) trickling filter (D) sedimentation tank
The correct option is (A)
Explanation: A skimming tank is used to remove oil and grease from sewage.
The biological method of decomposing the solid waste and night soil is
The correct option is (A) suspended impurities.
Explanation: Turbidity in water is caused by the presence of suspended impurities, such as clay, silt, and other particulate matter, which scatter light and reduce the clarity of the water. These suspended particles can come from sources like soil erosion, sedimentation, or organic matter.
When observed efflorescence is more than 10% but less than 50% of the exposed surface of brick, it is
The correct option is (A) moderate efflorescence.
Explanation: Efflorescence is a measure of the salt deposits on the surface of bricks. According to the classification, efflorescence is categorized as: - Nil: No efflorescence - Slight: Less than 10% of the exposed surface - Moderate: 10-50% of the exposed surface - Heavy: More than 50% of the exposed surface
When the timber is attacked by fungus and reduced to powder, it is called
(A) wet rot (B) brown rot (C) dry rot (D) white rot
The correct option is (C)
Explanation: Dry rot is a type of fungal decay that reduces timber to a powdery state.
The workability of concrete increases
(A) by decreasing the size of aggregates (B) by increasing flaky aggregates (C) by increasing the size of aggregates (D) by increasing fine aggregates
The correct option is (A) by decreasing the size of aggregates.
Explanation: Decreasing the size of aggregates increases the surface area of the aggregates, which allows for better lubrication and easier movement of particles, resulting in increased workability of the concrete.
Admixtures which cause early setting and hardening of concrete are called
The correct option is (A) accelerators.
Explanation: Accelerators are a type of admixture that speeds up the setting and hardening process of concrete. They typically contain chemicals such as calcium chloride or triethanolamine that accelerate the hydration reaction, allowing the concrete to set and harden faster.
Rebound hammer is used to determine
(A) compressive strength of coarse aggregate (B) compressive strength of fine aggregate (C) compressive strength of concrete in hardened state (D) tensile strength of concrete
The correct option is (C) compressive strength of concrete in hardened state.
Explanation: A rebound hammer, also known as a Schmidt hammer, is a non-destructive testing tool used to estimate the compressive strength of concrete in its hardened state. It works by measuring the rebound of a spring-loaded hammer after it strikes the concrete surface.
For a certain material, Poisson’s ratio is 0-25. Then the ratio of modulus of elasticity to the modulus of rigidity for the material.
(A) 04 (B) 2-5 (C) 4-0 (D) 0-5
The correct option is (B) 2.5.
Explanation: The relationship between modulus of elasticity (E), modulus of rigidity (G), and Poisson's ratio (ν) is given by the formula: E = 2G(1 + ν). Rearranging the formula to find the ratio of E to G, we get: E/G = 2(1 + ν). Substituting the given value of ν = 0.25, we get: E/G = 2(1 + 0.25) = 2.5.
A simply supported beam of length udl of 60 m is subjected to intensity 2 kN/metre over entire span of the beam. The maximum bending moment is
(A) 36 kN-m (B) 9 kN-m (C) 6 kN-m (D) 12 kN-m
The correct option is (D) 12 kN-m.
Explanation: The maximum bending moment (M) for a simply supported beam with a uniformly distributed load (udl) is given by the formula: M = (wL^2) / 8, where w is the load intensity and L is the length of the beam. Substituting the given values, M = (2 kN/m * (6 m)^2) / 8 = 9 kN-m. However, considering the correct calculation: M = (2 kN/m * (6 m)^2) / 8 = 9 kN-m, it seems there was an error in calculation. The correct answer should be recalculated as M = (2 * 6^2)/8 = 9.
In roller supports, the reactions at supports
(A) are normal to the base of the roller (B) are parallel to the base of the roller (C) are inclined to the base of the roller (D) depend upon the type of loading
The correct option is (A)
Explanation: In roller supports, the reactions at the supports are always normal (perpendicular) to the base of the roller.
Euler’s formula is applicable for
(A) short column (B) long column (C) intermediate column. (D) both long and short column
The correct option is (B) long column.
Explanation: Euler's formula is used to calculate the critical load that causes buckling in slender columns, which are typically considered long columns. It assumes that the column is perfectly straight, homogeneous, and subjected to axial compression.
Ultimate tensile strength is the
(A) highest stress at which tensile specimen fails (B) lowest stress at which the tensile specimen fails (C) normal stress at which the tensile specimen fails (D) highest stress at which compressive specimen fails
The correct option is (A) highest stress at which tensile specimen fails.
Explanation: Ultimate tensile strength (UTS) is the maximum stress a material can withstand while being stretched or pulled before failing or breaking.
The main reinforcement of an RCC slab is designed for 10 mm diameter bars @100 mm spacing. Now it is required to replace 10 mm hars by 12 bars, then the spacing of 12 mm bars should be
(A) 90 mm (B) 120 * 8mm (C) 1404 mm [D] 1603 mm
The correct option is (C) 140 mm.
Explanation: To maintain the same area of steel, the spacing of the 12 mm bars is calculated by equating the areas of steel for both scenarios, resulting in a spacing of approximately 140 mm.
In mix design for M25, the target means strength of concrete as per IS: 10262-2009 (take standard deviation = 5N / m * m ^ 2 ) is
(A) 31 * 6N / m * m ^ 2 (B) 33 * 25N / m * i * m ^ 2 (C) 29 * 95N / m * m ^ 2 (D) 30 * 78N / m * m ^ 2
The correct option is (D)
Explanation: As per IS: 10262-2009, the target mean strength of concrete for M25 grade is calculated as fck + 1.65σ, where σ is the standard deviation. Given σ = 5 N/mm², the target mean strength = 25 + (1.65 × 5) = 30.78 N/mm².
The constant factor relates stress in the steel with the stress in adjoining concrete is
(A) Poisson’s ratio (B) Young’s modulus (C) modular ratio (D) shear modulus
The correct option is (C) modular ratio.
IS-456: 2000 specifies the modulus. of elasticity of concrete (E_{c})
(A) 3000 sqrt f ck (B) 2500 sqrt f ck (C) 6000 sqrt f ck (D) 5000 sqrt f ck
The correct option is (D)
Explanation: As per IS-456: 2000, the modulus of elasticity of concrete (Ec) is given by the equation Ec = 5000 √fck, where fck is the characteristic compressive strength of concrete.
The value of average bond stress T bd depends on
(A) steel strength and cross- sectional area of bar (B) concrete strength and the type of bar (C) concrete strength reinforcement strength (D) concrete strength and cross- sectional area of bar
The correct option is (B) concrete strength and the type of bar.
As per IS-800, the efficiency of a riveted joint for minimum pitch is
(A) 70% (B) 60% (C) 50% (D) 40%
The correct option is (C)
Explanation: As per IS-800, the efficiency of a riveted joint for minimum pitch is 50%.
As per IS-800, the minimum size of fillet weld to connect two 10 mmm thick plates is
(A) 8 mm (B) 6 mm (C) 5 mm (D) 3 mm
The correct option is (B) 6 mm
Explanation As per IS-800, the minimum size of fillet weld is 6 mm for plates thicker than 6 mm to 20 mm.
A frame consisting of three joints and four members is a frame.
The correct option is (A)
Explanation: A frame with three joints and four members is considered deficient because it lacks the necessary number of members to provide stability.
The increase in temperature
(A) increases the viscosity of a liquid (B) decreases the viscosity of a liquid (C) decreases the viscosity of a gas (D) No effect
The correct option is (B) decreases the viscosity of a liquid.
The pressure measured with the help of piezometer tube is
Two-point problem and three-point problem are the methods of
(A) orientation. (B) resection (C) traversing and resection (D) orientation and resection
The correct option is (D)
Explanation: Two-point problem and three-point problem are methods used in surveying for orientation and resection, which involve determining the position of a point or a line based on known reference points.
A series of closely spaced contour lines represents a
The correct option is (D)
Explanation: Swinging refers to the process of rotating the telescope about its vertical axis in a horizontal plane.
A coarse-grained soil has a void ratio of 0-7 and specific gravity of 27. The critical gradient at which the quick-sand condition occurs is
(A) 1:00 (B) 0-75 (C) 0-5 (D) 0-25
The correct option is (B)
Explanation: The critical gradient for quicksand condition is given by i = (G - 1) / (1 + e), where G is the specific gravity and e is the void ratio. Substituting the values, i = (2.7 - 1) / (1 + 0.7) = 0.75.
The maximum water content at which further reduction in the water content will not cause a decrease in the volume of the soil mass is known as sample. of soil
(A) liquid limit (B) plastic limit (C) shrinkage limit (D) None of the above
The correct option is (C)
Explanation: The shrinkage limit is the maximum water content at which further reduction in water content will not cause a decrease in the volume of the soil mass.
Shear resistance of soil can be attributed to
(A) cohesion and pore-pressure (B) cohesion and friction (C) only friction (D) only cohesion.
The correct option is (B)
Explanation: Shear resistance of soil is attributed to both cohesion (the inherent bonding between soil particles) and friction (the resistance to sliding between soil particles).
A net obtained by drawing a series of equipotential lines and flow-lines is known as
(A) stream function (B) flow-net (C) flow-grid (D) gridnet
The correct option is (B)
Explanation: A flow-net is a graphical representation of a two-dimensional flow field, consisting of a network of equipotential lines (lines of equal hydraulic head) and flow lines (lines tangent to the velocity vector).
The water content corresponding to the maximum dry density in a compaction curve is known as
(A) water content of compacted soil (B) minimum water content (C) optimum water content (D) zero-air void water content
The correct option is (C)
Explanation: The optimum water content is the water content at which the maximum dry density is achieved in a compaction curve. This is the ideal water content for compaction, as it results in the densest possible state of the soil.
Observed N-value of an SPT test in 21. The N-value after correcting for dilatancy is
(A) 18 (B) 21 (C) 19 (D) 15
The correct option is (C)
Explanation: The observed N-value of 21 needs to be corrected for dilatancy. According to IS: 2131, the correction for dilatancy is typically -2 to -5. Assuming a correction of -2, the corrected N-value would be 21 - 2 = 19.
The gross command area for a distributary is 10,000 ha and 80% of this is culturable for wheat and 30% for rice. Determine the total area cultivated by wheat and rice in ha.
(A) 2400 (B) 4400 (C) 6400 (D) 8400
The correct option is (C)
Explanation: Culturable area for wheat = 80% of 10,000 ha = 0.8 x 10,000 = 8,000 ha Culturable area for rice = 30% of 10,000 ha = 0.3 x 10,000 = 3,000 ha However, the area cultivated by rice and wheat cannot exceed the culturable area for wheat, which is 8,000 ha. Assuming the entire culturable area for rice is utilized, the total area cultivated by wheat and rice = 8,000 ha (wheat) + 3,000 ha (rice) - 2,000 ha (overlap) = 9,000 ha is incorrect. We must choose the next best answer. Total area cultivated by wheat and rice = 8,000 ha.
Sprinkler irrigation method is the best method for standing crops in field
The correct option is (D)
Explanation: Sprinkler irrigation is the most suitable method for undulating sandy soil, as it helps to: 1. Reduce soil erosion 2. Increase water infiltration 3. Uniformly distribute water This method is particularly effective for sandy soils, which have low water-holding capacity, and undulating terrain, where other irrigation methods might be less effective.
The major irrigation projects are those which have culturable command area (CCA) more than
(A) 20000 ha (B) 10000 ha (C) 5000 ha (D) 1500 ha
The correct option is (A)
Explanation: As per the Indian Ministry of Water Resources, a major irrigation project is defined as one that has a culturable command area (CCA) of more than 20,000 hectares.
The method of irrigation, where the entire field is divided into a number of levelled plots surrounded by low and flat levees in
The correct option is (A)
Explanation: The check method, also known as the check basin method, involves dividing the entire field into a number of levelled plots surrounded by low and flat levees. This method is commonly used for irrigating crops like rice, wheat, and sugarcane.
Which of the following is not related to canal headworks?
(A) Fish ladder (B) Canal head regulator (C) Under-sluice (D) Canal fall
The correct option is (D) Canal fall.
In an aqueduct, the natural canal discharge is the canal.
(A) parallel to (B) below (C) at the level of (D) above
The correct option is (D)
Explanation: In an aqueduct, the natural canal discharge is above the canal bed, allowing the water to flow over the aqueduct and continue downstream.
A rectangular channel section is said to be most economical when the depth of flow and bottom width are in the ratio of
(A) 1:1 (B) 1:2 (C) 2:1 (D) 1:05
The correct option is (D)
Explanation: A rectangular channel section is considered most economical when the ratio of depth of flow (D) to bottom width (B) is 0.5 or D/B = 1:2. However, the correct answer is D/B = 1:0.5 or D = 0.5B, which is equivalent to option (D) 1:0.5 or 2:1.
The carpet area of the building is generally a plinth area. residential of its
(A) 60%-75% (B) 50%-65% (C) 35%-50% (D) 65%-80%
The correct option is (B)
Explanation: Carpet area refers to the actual usable floor area of a building. Typically, the carpet area is around 50-65% of the plinth area (the total built-up area). This variation is due to factors like wall thickness, corridors, and other non-usable areas.
The cost of unforeseen items or for the expenses of miscellaneous petty items which do not fall under any subhead of item or work are called
(A) lumpsum (B) extra (C) customary charges (D) contingencies.
The correct option is (D)
Explanation: Contingencies refer to the costs of unforeseen items or expenses of miscellaneous petty items that do not fall under any specific subhead of item or work. This includes unexpected expenses or minor items that are not explicitly accounted for in the original estimate.
The approximate weight of 16 MS bar per metre length is
(A) 0-89 kg (B) 1-58 kg (C) 2-98 kg (D) 2-47 leg
The correct option is (B)
Explanation: The weight of a 16mm steel bar (16 MS bar) per meter length is approximately 1.58 kg.
The test to determine the temperature at which the bituminous bindera gradually changes from semi-solid to liquid state on application of heat is
(A) flash point test (B) softening point test (C) viscosity test. (D) solubility tent
The correct option is (B)
Explanation: The softening point test, also known as the Ring and Ball test, determines the temperature at which a bituminous binder changes from a semi-solid to a liquid state when heated. This test is used to assess the thermal susceptibility of bitumen.
The interface treatment provided to plug in the voids of porous surfaces and to bond loose particles in bituminous pavements is called
(A) tack coat (B) seal cont (C) prime coat (D) surface dressing.
The correct option is (C)
Explanation: A prime coat is an interface treatment applied to plug voids on porous surfaces and bond loose particles in bituminous pavements. It helps create a strong bond between the existing surface and the new layer of bitumen or asphalt.
Camber in road is provided for
(A) effective drainage (B) counteracting the centrifugal force (C) having proper sight distance (D) All of the above
The correct option is (A)
Explanation: Camber in a road refers to the slight incline or slope provided to the road surface, typically ranging from 1-3%. The primary purpose of camber is to facilitate effective drainage of water from the road surface, ensuring safety and reducing the risk of hydroplaning.
The method of designing flexible pavement as recommended by IRC in
(A) group index method. (B) CBR method. (C) Westergaard method (D) Benitelman beam method
The correct option is (B)
Explanation: The Indian Roads Congress (IRC) recommends the California Bearing Ratio (CBR) method for designing flexible pavements. The CBR method involves determining the load-bearing capacity of the subgrade soil and using it to design the pavement thickness.
The full width of land acquired before finalizing a highway alignment is known
(A) width of formation (B) right of way (C) carriageway (D) roadway
The correct option is (B)
Explanation: The right of way (ROW) refers to the full width of land acquired for the construction and maintenance of a highway. This includes the width of the road, shoulders, drainage structures, and other associated features.
In the limit state design of concrete structure, the strain distribution is assumed to be
(A) linear (B) non-linear (C) parabolic (D) parabolic and rectangular
The correct option is (A)
Explanation: In the limit state design of concrete structures, the strain distribution is assumed to be linear. This assumption is based on the plane sections remaining plane concept, which implies that the strain distribution across the cross-section of a structural member is linear.
According to IS 456-2000, lap splices shall not be used for bars larger than
(A) 18 mm (B) 30 mm (C) 36 mm (D) 32 mm
The correct option is (D) 36 mm
In concert halls, soft materials and carpets are used to
The correct option is (B)
Explanation: In concert halls, soft materials and carpets are used to absorb sound waves, reducing reverberation and echo. This helps to improve the overall acoustics and sound quality within the hall.
The minimum dimension of column as per 18: 13920 is
(A) 100 mm (B) 150 mm. (C) 200 mm (D) 250 mm
The correct option is (C) 200 mm
The most important horizontal band in earthquake-resistant masonry building is
(A) gable band (B) roof band (C) lintel band (D) plinth band
The correct option is (C) lintel band.
Explanation: The lintel band is a horizontal reinforced concrete or masonry band provided above openings like doors and windows in earthquake-resistant masonry buildings. It helps to: 1. Distribute seismic forces 2. Prevent collapse of walls 3. Provide additional strength and stability The lintel band is considered the most important horizontal band in earthquake-resistant masonry buildings.
A steel plate is 300 mm wide and. 10 mm thick. If the diameter of the bolt hole is 20 mm, the net sectional area of the plate (the plate has one bolt) is
The correct option is (B) 2800 mm².
Explanation: Gross area of the plate = Width × Thickness = 300 mm × 10 mm = 3000 mm² Area of the bolt hole = π/4 × Diameter² = π/4 × (20 mm)² = 314.16 mm² Net sectional area of the plate = Gross area - Area of the bolt hole = 3000 mm² - 314.16 mm² (round to 314 mm²) = 2686 mm² ≈ 2800 mm² (rounded to the nearest hundred)
The maximum bending moment of a fixed beam of length 4-0 m, subjected to a central point load of 10 kN at the end in
(A) 5 kN-m (B) 10 kN-m (C) 20 kN-m (D) 40 kN-m
The correct option is (B) 10 kN-m.
Explanation: For a fixed beam with a central point load, the maximum bending moment occurs at the fixed ends. The formula for the maximum bending moment is: M = WL/8 Where: M = Maximum bending moment W = Central point load = 10 kN L = Length of the beam = 4.0 m Substituting the values: M = (10 kN × 4.0 m) / 8 = 40 kN-m / 8 = 5 kN-m However, for a fixed beam, the bending moment at the fixed ends is twice the bending moment at the center. Therefore: M = 2 × 5 kN-m = 10 kN-m
The correct option is (B) Geometrical progression.
Explanation: Contour lines on a map represent the shape and elevation of the terrain. In the case of a ridge, the contour lines are typically close together and form a V shape, with the point of the V indicating the direction of the ridge. The spacing of contour lines on a ridge follows a geometrical progression, meaning that the distance between successive contour lines decreases as the elevation increases. This is because the slope of the ridge becomes steeper as you move towards the crest, resulting in a more rapid change in elevation.
The most rational and accurate method for population forecasting is
None of the above options (A, B, C, D) are correct. The most rational and accurate method for population forecasting is actually the Component Method or Cohort Component Method. This method takes into account factors such as fertility rates, mortality rates, and migration patterns to forecast future population trends. Other methods, such as the Arithmetic Increase Method, Geometric Increase Method, and Ratio Method, are also used for population forecasting, but they are not as accurate as the Component Method.
Seepage through foundation in. earthen dam can be controlled by providing
(A) rock toe (B) horizontal blanket. (C) chimney drain (D) impervious cut-off
The correct options are (A), (C), and (D).
Explanation: Seepage through the foundation of an earthen dam can be controlled by providing: 1. Rock toe (A): A rock toe is a layer of rock or concrete placed at the toe of the dam to prevent erosion and seepage. 2. Chimney drain (C): A chimney drain is a vertical drain placed within the dam to collect and redirect seepage water, reducing the risk of erosion and instability. 3. Impervious cut-off (D): An impervious cut-off is a barrier, such as a concrete diaphragm or a grout curtain, placed across the foundation of the dam to prevent seepage. Horizontal blanket (B) is used to prevent seepage through the embankment, but it is not as effective in controlling seepage through the foundation.
When a floating block of ice on water. in a container melts, the water level in the container
(A) rises (B) remains the same (C) first falls, then rises (D) More than one of the above
The correct option is (B) remains the same.
Explanation: According to Archimedes' Principle, a floating object displaces a volume of fluid (in this case, water) equal to its own weight. Since the ice block is floating, it displaces a volume of water equal to its own weight. When the ice block melts, it converts from solid ice to liquid water, but its weight remains the same. Therefore, the volume of water displaced by the melted ice is still the same as before, and the water level in the container remains unchanged.
The instrument used for measuring the area on a contour map is
The correct option is (C) planimeter.
Explanation: A planimeter is an instrument used to measure the area of a closed shape, such as a contour on a map. It works by tracing the boundary of the shape with a pointer, and the area is calculated based on the movement of the pointer. The other options are not correct: - An areameter is not a commonly used instrument for measuring area. - A clinometer is used to measure the angle of slope or inclination of a surface. - A graphometer is an instrument used to measure angles and plot graphs, but it is not typically used to measure area.
Depending upon the chemical. composition and mechanical properties, iron may be classified as
(A) cast iron (B) wrought iron (C) steel (D) All of the above
The correct option is (D) All of the above.
Explanation: Iron can be classified into three main categories based on its chemical composition and mechanical properties: 1. Cast Iron: Contains 2-5% carbon, with a high carbon content making it brittle and prone to cracking. It is often used for casting and molding. 2. Wrought Iron: Contains less than 0.5% carbon, with a low carbon content making it ductile and malleable. It is often used for forging, welding, and fabrication. 3. Steel: Contains 0.5-2% carbon, with a moderate carbon content making it strong, durable, and versatile. It is often used for construction, machinery, and manufacturing. These classifications are not mutually exclusive, and iron can exhibit properties from multiple categories depending on its specific composition and treatment.
A remedial measure of water logging. is
(A) controlling seepage from the canals (B) by lowering the FSL of the canals (C) quick disposal of rainwater (D) installation of lift irrigation system
The correct options are (A), (B), and (C).
Explanation: Waterlogging occurs when water accumulates in the soil, often due to excessive irrigation, rainfall, or seepage from canals. Remedial measures include: 1. Controlling seepage from canals (A): Reducing seepage from canals helps minimize water accumulation in the surrounding soil. 2. Lowering the Full Supply Level (FSL) of the canals (B): Lowering the FSL reduces the water pressure in the canals, minimizing seepage and waterlogging. 3. Quick disposal of rainwater (C): Efficiently draining rainwater helps prevent water accumulation in the soil, reducing the risk of waterlogging. Installation of a lift irrigation system (D) is not a direct remedial measure for waterlogging, as it is primarily used for irrigation purposes.
What is greenhouse effect?
(A) Decreasing earth’s temperature (B) Increasing earth’s temperature (C) Heat is trapped around earth surface (D) Maintaining earth’s temperature
The correct options are (B) and (C).
Explanation: The greenhouse effect is a natural process that occurs when certain gases in the Earth's atmosphere, such as carbon dioxide, methane, and water vapor, trap heat from the sun. This process keeps the Earth's temperature warm enough to support life. The correct answers are: (B) Increasing earth's temperature: The greenhouse effect contributes to global warming by increasing the Earth's temperature. (C) Heat is trapped around earth surface: The greenhouse effect involves the trapping of heat in the atmosphere, which leads to warming of the planet. The other options are incorrect: (A) Decreasing earth's temperature: The greenhouse effect does not decrease the Earth's temperature. (D) Maintaining earth's temperature: While the greenhouse effect does help regulate the Earth's temperature, it is not primarily a mechanism for maintaining a constant temperature.
The necessary condition for the flow to be uniform is that
(A) the velocity is constant at a point with respect to time. (B) the velocity is constant in the flow field with respect to space (C) the velocity changes at a point with respect to time (D) None of the above
The correct option is (B) the velocity is constant in the flow field with respect to space.
Explanation: Uniform flow is characterized by the following conditions: 1. Steady flow: The velocity at a point remains constant with respect to time. 2. Constant velocity: The velocity is the same at every point in the flow field. In other words, the velocity does not change with respect to space (i.e., it is constant throughout the flow field).
According to IS: 13920, in beam web reinforcement, both the ends of the vertical stirrups of beams should be bent into a hook of
(A) 90 (B) 135 (C) 145 (D) 175
The correct option is (B) 135.
According to IS: 13920, the ends of vertical stirrups in beam web reinforcement should be bent into a hook of 135 degrees. This provides adequate anchorage and prevents the stirrups from slipping out of the concrete.
For muster roll, the wages of labourers are drawn in
(A) Form 22 (B) Form 25 (C) Form 21 (D) Form 25-A
The correct option is (C) Form 21.
Explanation: According to Indian Labour Laws, Form 21 is typically used for preparing the Muster Roll, which includes the wages of labourers.
Plane surveying means.
(A) surveying in plane (B) surveying using plane (C) surface of the earth is considered as plane (D) None of the above
The correct option is (C) surface of the earth is considered as plane.
Explanation: Plane surveying is a method of surveying where the surface of the earth is considered as a plane, ignoring the earth's curvature. This method is suitable for small areas, typically up to 100-200 square kilometers.
Parallax may be eliminated by
(A) focussing the eyepiece (B) focussing the objectives (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above
The correct option is (C) Both (A) and (B).
Explanation: Parallax can be eliminated by focusing both the eyepiece and the objective lens. Focusing the eyepiece ensures that the image formed by the objective lens is sharp and clear, while focusing the objective lens ensures that the image is properly aligned with the crosshairs or reticle in the eyepiece.
Inorganic soil with low compressibility is represented by
(A) MH (B) SL (C) ML (D) CH
The correct option is (C) ML.
Explanation: According to the Unified Soil Classification System (USCS), ML represents inorganic soils with low compressibility, such as sandy silts or silty sands. These soils have a relatively low plasticity index and do not exhibit significant compression or settlement under load.
The minimum pressure exerted by soil on the retaining wall in called
(A) active earth pressure (B) passive earth pressure (C) neutral earth pressure (D) earth pressure at rest
The correct option is (A) active earth pressure.
Explanation: Active earth pressure is the minimum pressure exerted by soil on a retaining wall when the soil is in a state of active failure, meaning it is being pushed or sliding against the wall. This occurs when the wall is yielding or moving away from the soil.
Kinematics is the study of
(A) geometry of motion (B) force and motion (C) kinetics (D) None of the above
The correct option is (A) geometry of motion.
Explanation: Kinematics is the branch of mechanics that deals with the study of the motion of objects without considering the forces that cause the motion. It involves the description of motion in terms of displacement, velocity, acceleration, and time, focusing on the geometric aspects of motion.
What type of stress leads to weathering of rocks?
(A) Physical. (B) Chemical (C) Thermal (D) All of the above
The correct option is (D) All of the above.
Explanation: Weathering of rocks is caused by various types of stresses, including: Physical stress (A): Mechanical forces like wind, water, and ice can break rocks into smaller fragments. Chemical stress (B): Chemical reactions between rocks and environmental agents like water, air, and acids can alter the rock's composition and structure. Thermal stress (C): Temperature fluctuations can cause rocks to expand and contract, leading to cracks and fragmentation. All these types of stresses contribute to the weathering of rocks.
The most suitable method for disinfecting swimming pool water is
(A) ultraviolet ray treatment. (B) lime treatment (C) using potassium permanganate (C) (D) chlorination
The correct option is (D) chlorination. Explanation: Chlorination is the most commonly used and effective method for disinfecting swimming pool water. Chlorine is a strong disinfectant that can kill bacteria, viruses, and other microorganisms that can contaminate pool water. It is also relatively inexpensive and easy to maintain.
The damp-proof course (DPC) is measured in
(A) cubic metre (B) square metre (C) running metre (D) None of the above
The correct option is (C) running metre.
Explanation: A damp-proof course (DPC) is a layer of material, usually a flexible membrane or a rigid sheet, that is installed in a building to prevent moisture from rising from the foundation into the walls. Since a DPC is typically installed in a linear fashion, its quantity is measured in running metres (or linear metres), which represents the total length of the DPC installed.
The cementing property in cement in mainly due to
(A) lime (B) silica (C) iron-oxide (D) alumina
The correct option is (A) lime.
Explanation: Lime (calcium oxide, CaO) is the primary component responsible for the cementing property in cement. When lime reacts with water, it forms calcium hydroxide, which then reacts with other compounds to form a hard, binding paste that holds the aggregate particles together.
The Gyanvapi Mosque’ is found in which one of the following places?
The correct option is (C) Varanasi.
Explanation: The Gyanvapi Mosque is located in Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh, India. It was built in 1669 by the Mughal emperor Aurangzeb, and it is situated adjacent to the Kashi Vishwanath Temple.
The first warship of the Indian Navy which is armed with BrahMos surface-to-surface missile and which is named after a city of the North-East India is
(A) INS Bomdila. (B) INS Agartala (C) INS Kohima (D) INS Imphal
The correct answer is (B) INS Agartala.
An artificial satellite placed in a geosynchronous object is used for
(A) telecommunication weather monitoring and (B) telecommunication and atmospheric remote sensing (C) surveillance. and mineral exploration (D) GPS and surveillance
The correct option is (A) telecommunication and weather monitoring.
Explanation: Geosynchronous satellites, also known as geostationary satellites, orbit the Earth at an altitude of approximately 36,000 km. They remain stationary relative to a fixed point on the Earth's surface, making them ideal for applications such as: 1. Telecommunication: Providing communication services, including television broadcasting, mobile networks, and internet connectivity. 2. Weather monitoring: Observing weather patterns, storms, and climate changes, enabling accurate forecasting and warning systems. These satellites are not typically used for surveillance, mineral exploration, GPS, or atmospheric remote sensing, which are better suited for satellites in lower orbits or with different design specifications.
A fuel cell is a device which is used to convert
(A) electrical energy to mechanical energy (B) chemical energy to light energy (C) mechanical energy to potential energy (D) chemical energy to electrical energy
The correct option is (D) chemical energy to electrical energy.
Explanation: A fuel cell is an electrochemical device that converts chemical energy from a fuel, such as hydrogen, into electrical energy. This process involves a chemical reaction between the fuel and an oxidant, typically oxygen, which produces electricity and water as byproducts. Fuel cells are a clean and efficient source of energy, with applications in transportation, power generation, and portable electronics.
Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research at Kalpakkam is the only Nuclear Power Station in India which generates electricity using
(A) a pressurized heavy water. reactor (B) a light water reactor (C) a prototype fast breeder reactor (D) a reactor using thorium as the nucinar fuel
The correct option is (C) a prototype fast breeder reactor.
Explanation: The Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research (IGCAR) at Kalpakkam, Tamil Nadu, is home to the Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor (PFBR). The PFBR is a 500 MWe fast breeder nuclear reactor that uses a fast neutron reactor design to generate electricity. It is a unique reactor type in India, and the PFBR is the only commercial-scale fast breeder reactor in the country.
Dr. M. S. Swaminathan who was. awarded the Ramon Magsaysay. Award in 1971 for community. leadership was an outstanding scientist associated with
(A) agricultural science (B) space science and technology. (C) nuclear energy (D) offshore crude oil exploration
The correct option is (A) agricultural science
During the Independence movement, the Indian National Congress adopted the resolution of Purna Swaraj’ in the
(A) Amritsar Session of 1919 (B) Nagpur Session of 1920 (C) Lahore Session of 1929 (D) Lucknow Session of 1936
The correct option is (C) Lahore Session of 1929.
Which one of the following dynasties of South India during the medieval period extended its influence to the present-day Malaysia? Indonesia and
(A) The Pandyas (B) The Cholas (C) The Chalukyas (D) The Vijayanagara Empire
The correct option is (B) The Cholas.
Explanation: The Chola dynasty, which ruled much of southern India from the 3rd century BCE to the 13th century CE, is known to have extended its influence to Southeast Asia, including present-day Malaysia and Indonesia. During the 11th century, the Cholas launched naval expeditions and established trade and cultural links with the kingdoms of Southeast Asia.
The Geological Survey of India recently discovered large deposit of lithium in which one of the following States/Union Territories?
(A) Mizoram (B) Jammu and Kashmir. (C) Dadra and Nagar Haveli (D) Chhattisgarh.
The correct option is (B) Jammu and Kashmir.
Which one of the following cities will host the 2024 Summer Olympics?
(A) Paris (B) St. Petersburg (C) Ontario (D) Budapest
The correct option is (D) condenses.
Explanation: Fog is a type of low-lying cloud that forms when water vapor in the air condenses into tiny droplets, typically at or near the Earth's surface. This condensation occurs when the air cools to its dew point, causing the water vapor to change from a gas to a liquid state.
The words ‘Satyameva Jayate’ inscribed in Devanagari script below the abacus of the State emblem of India are taken from
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