APSC Junior Information and Public Relations Officer (2023) General Studies (B) Question Paper with Answers

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

Test Booklet No. : 00017

TEST BOOKLET

(GENERAL STUDIES (B))

Time Allowed: 2 Hours Full Marks: 100


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Example:

Suppose the following question is asked:

The capital of Bangladesh is

(A) Chennai
(B) London
(C) Dhaka
(D) Dhubri

You will have four alternatives in the Answer-Sheet for your response corresponding to each question Test Booklet as below: of the

In the above illustration, if your chosen response is alternative (C), Le., Dhaka, then the same should be marked on the Answer-Sheet by blackening the relevant circle with a Black/Blue ballpoint pen only as below:

The example shown above is the only correct method of answering.

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  1. Which of the following wetlands of Mizoram has been accorded the status of a Ramsar site?

(A) Sur Sarovar
(B) Rudrasagar Lake
(C) Pala Wetlands
(D) Loktak Lake

The correct option is (C) Pala Wetlands
Explanation Pala Wetland, also known as Pala Lake or Palak Dil, has been designated as a Ramsar site, recognizing its importance as a wetland of international significance.

  1. Bhortal Nritya, a Sankari culture of Barpeta, evolved from the classical dance form of that particular district of Assam and was developed by

(A) Maniram Dutta Muktiyard Barbayan
(B) Narahari Burha Bhakat
(C) Rasheswar Saikia Barbayan
(D) Ratna Talukdar

The correct option is (B) Narahari Burha Bhakat
Explanation Bhortal Nritya is a traditional dance form of Assam, specifically from the Barpeta district, and is attributed to have evolved from the classical dance form of the region, developed by Narahari Burha Bhakat.

  1. With which of the following States does Myanmar not share the border?

(A) Mizoram
(B) Manipur
(C) Assam
(D) Arunachal Pradesh

The correct option is (C) Assam
Explanation Myanmar shares international borders with the Indian states of Mizoram, Manipur, Nagaland, and Arunachal Pradesh, but not with Assam.

  1. Which Indian railway station recently received the ‘Green Railway Station’ certificate?

(A) Vijayawada
(B) Patna
(C) Gwalior
(D) Siliguri

The correct option is (A) Vijayawada
Explanation Vijayawada Railway Station recently received the 'Green Railway Station' certificate with the highest Platinum rating from the Indian Green Building Council (IGBC).

  1. Consider the following statements regarding the carbon market:

Statement I: Carbon markets are likely to be one of the most widespread tools in the fight against climate change.
Statement II: Carbon markets transfer resources from the private sector to the State.

Select the correct option using the codes given below.

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I
(C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

The correct option is (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
Explanation Carbon markets are indeed a crucial tool in the fight against climate change, as they provide a financial incentive for reducing greenhouse gas emissions (Statement I is correct). However, carbon markets typically involve the creation and trading of carbon credits between private entities, rather than transferring resources from the private sector to the state (Statement II is incorrect).

  1. Consider the following statements regarding the Five-Year Plans in India:

I. The National Green Tribunal, set up to deal with the expe- ditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection, was set up under the 11th Five- Year Plan.
II. The 3rd Five-Year Plan was affected due to drought and two Wars.
III. Under the 8th Five-Year Plan, Blue Revolution was started in India.

Select the correct statement/ statements using the codes given below.

(A) I only
(B) I and II only
(C) I, II and III
(D) None of the above

The correct option is (B) I and II only
Explanation Statement I is correct: The National Green Tribunal was established under the 11th Five-Year Plan to address environmental protection cases. Statement II is correct: The 3rd Five-Year Plan (1961-1966) was indeed affected by drought and two wars (the Indo-China War in 1962 and the Indo-Pakistan War in 1965). Statement III is incorrect: The Blue Revolution, which aimed to increase fish production, was actually initiated during the 7th Five-Year Plan (1985-1990), not the 8th Five-Year Plan.

  1. Choose the one word substitute to the following phrase:

One who speaks for others’

(A) Speaker
(B) Spokesperson
(C)Leaderon
(D) Teller

The correct option is (B) Spokesperson
Explanation A spokesperson is a person who speaks on behalf of others, such as an organization, group, or individual.

  1. Point out the incorrect statement(s) pertaining to Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana by using the options given below the statements:

I. Families belonging to Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY) and Priority Households (PHH) categories will be eligible for the scheme.
II. It will cover all primitive tribal households.
III. Families covered under the public distribution system and receiving ration under the National Food Security Act (NFSA) are not eligible for the scheme.
IV. It will cover all eligible Below Poverty Line families of HIV positive persons.

Options:

(A) Both I and II
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) II and III

The correct option is (C) III only
Explanation Statement III is incorrect: Families covered under the public distribution system and receiving ration under the National Food Security Act (NFSA) are actually eligible for the Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana (PMGKAY). The scheme provides additional food grains to these beneficiaries to support them during difficult times.

  1. Kisan Credit Card Yojana addresses the problem of financial shortcomings of farmers. Which of the following is not a feature of the Yojana?

(A) Farmers receive an ATM-cum- credit card
(B) The credit card comes with a 24 monthly repayment period
(C) The credit card facility is valid for 3 years
(D) It also offers an accident insurance against a premium of 15 for a single year policy

The correct option is (D) It also offers an accident insurance against a premium of 15 for a single year policy
Explanation The Kisan Credit Card (KCC) scheme does offer personal accident insurance, but the premium amount is actually ₹15 + tax for a coverage of ₹50,000 to ₹25,000 + tax for a coverage of ₹2 lakhs, not just ₹15 for a single year policy.

  1. The Chief Minister’s start-up fund ‘Sarothi’ seeks to remove the hurdle of funds for small startups in Assam. Point out which of the following sentences is not true about Sarothi.

(A) Under the scheme, the Government provides 10 lakhs with 5% interest subvention to all eligible entrepreneurs.
(B) The applicants have to provide 15% of the total money required for setting up the entire project.
(C) The concerned bank authority will impose interest of 5% after completion of every quarter in a year.
(D) Priority will be given to an applicant if he or she undergoes any skill development training

The correct option is (C) The concerned bank authority will impose interest of 5% after completion of every quarter in a year. Explanation The statement is not true about Sarothi as the State Government provides interest subvention @ 5% P.A., which means the government subsidizes the interest rate, not imposes it.

  1. Select the group which is not eligible for Chief Minister’s Samagra Gramya Unnayan Yojana from the following options.

(A) If the applicant group has 8-10 members only
(B) If the applicant group of farmers has a common bank account with or without individual bank account
(C) If the applicant group has only one member from one family
(D) Government employees

The correct option is (D) Government employees.

  1. Who wrote the book, Everybody Loves a Good Drought?

(A) Mark Tully
(B) Dileep Padgaonkar
(C) N. Ram
(D) P. Sainath

The correct option is (D) P. Sainath.

  1. Narco-analysis investigation is a method of

(A) using galvanic skin response test
(B) using a lie detector test
(C) making the subject semiconscious by injecting sodium pentothal
(D) using radiation to map the brain

The correct option is (C) making the subject semiconscious by injecting sodium pentothal.

  1. Bluetooth is a technology in communication which features

(A) wireless communication using radio waves
(B) wireless communication using infrared rays
(C) wireless communication using microwaves
(D) wireless communication using laser

The correct option is (A) wireless communication using radio waves.

  1. The largest State in Northeast India in terms of geography is

(A) Assam
(B) Nagaland
(C) Tripura
(D) Arunachal Pradesh

The correct option is (D) Arunachal Pradesh.

  1. ‘Life’s Good’ is the catchline of which of the following brands?

(A) LG
(B) HP
(C) Samsung
(D) Kodak

The correct option is (A) LG.

  1. The term ‘put’ is used in which sport?

(A) Cricket
(B) Table Tennis
(C) Golf
(D) Football

The correct option is (C) Golf.

  1. The term ‘cherry picking’ is used in which sport?

(A) Table Tennis.
(B) Swimming
(C) Basketball
(D) Cricket

The correct option is (D) Cricket.

  1. How many players are there in mom Kho Kho?

(A) 7
(B) 8
(C) 10
(D) 12

The correct option is (C) 12.

  1. The infrastructure development project with the aim of promoting ‘port-led development’ in India has been named

(A) Bharatmala
(B) Sagarmata
(C) Sagarnaman
(D) Sagarmala

The correct option is (D) Sagarmala.
Explanation: Sagarmala is a flagship program aimed at promoting port-led development in India.

  1. The book, Delhi is Not Far is written by which of the following authors?

(A) Khushwant Singh
(B) Anita Desai
(C) Arundhati Roy
(D) Ruskin Bond

The correct option is (D) Ruskin Bond.
Explanation: Ruskin Bond wrote the novel Delhi Is Not Far.

  1. Long Walk to Freedom is an autobiography of a mnae

(A) Kofi Annan
(B) John F. Kennedy
(C) Nelson Mandela
(D) Abraham Lincoln

The correct option is (C) Nelson Mandela.
Explanation: Long Walk to Freedom is Nelson Mandela's autobiography.

  1. Who has authored the book, Bishan: Portrait of a Cricketer?

(A) Harsha Bhogle P
(B) Suresh Menon
(C) Sunil Gavaskar
(D) Bharat Sundaresannon

The correct option is (D) Bharat Sundaresan.
Explanation: Bharat Sundaresan authored the book, Bishan: Portrait of a Cricketer, a biography of Bishan Singh Bedi.

  1. Which of the following is not a nuclear power station?

(A) Ramagundam
(B) Rawatbhata
(C) Narora
(D) Kalpakkam

The correct option is (A) Ramagundam.
Explanation: Ramagundam is a thermal power station, not a nuclear power station.

  1. The illustration work of the medieval 30m Assamese text, Hastividyarnava was done by

(A) Suryakhan Daikegya
(B) Dilbar and Dosai
(C) Sukumar Barkaith
(D) Rama Saraswati

The correct option is (B) Dilbar and Dosai.
Explanation: Dilbar and Dosai illustrated the medieval Assamese text, Hastividyarnava.

  1. The earliest historical dynasty of Assam was that of the UR

(A) Palas
(B) Varmans
(C) Narakas
(D) Salastambhas

The correct option is (B) Varmans.
Explanation: The Varman dynasty was the earliest historical dynasty of Assam.

  1. In which year Srimanta Sankardev was born?

(A) 1449
(B) 1569
(C) 1439
(D) 1538

The correct option is (A) 1449.

  1. Sadiyakhowa Gohain post was created during the reign of which Ahom King?

(A) Swargadeo Suhungmung
(B) Swargadeo Rudra Singha
(C) Swargadeo Pratap Singha
(D) None of them

The correct option is (B) Swargadeo Rudra Singha.
Explanation: The post of Sadiyakhowa Gohain was created during the reign of Swargadeo Rudra Singha.

  1. Press releases, sponsorships, special events and web pages are part of

(A) direct marketing
(B) advertising
(C) sales promotion
(D) public relations

The correct option is (D) public relations.
Explanation: Public relations encompasses various tactics, including press releases, sponsorships, special events, and web pages.

  1. Which of the following is not a function of the PR department?

(A) Selling
(B) Corporate communication
(C) Lobbying
(D) Counselling

The correct option is (A) Selling.
Explanation: Selling is primarily a function of the sales department, not the PR department.

  1. Which of the following epics is considered the highest source of the pre-history period of Assam?

(A) Mahabharata
(B) Kalika Purana
(C) Harshacharita
(D) Arthashastra

The correct option is (B) Kalika Purana.
Explanation: Kalika Purana is considered the highest source of the pre-history period of Assam.

  1. Mangona is a post-funeral ceremony of which tribal community?

(A) Karbi
(B) Dimasa
(C) Garo
(D) Rabha

The correct option is (B) Dimasa.
Explanation: Mangona is a post-funeral ceremony of the Dimasa tribal community.

  1. The first mobile theatre group of Assam was

(A) Abahan Theatre
(B) Kohinoor Theatre
(C) Nataraj Theatre
(D) Surdevi Theatre

The correct option is (A) Abahan Theatre.
Explanation: Abahan Theatre is considered the first mobile theatre group of Assam.

  1. The second Assamese Indramalati was made by film,

(A) Parbati Prasad Baruah
(B) Phani Sarma
(C) Jyotiprasad Agarwala
(D) Bishnu Rabha

The correct option is (B) Phani Sarma.
Explanation: Phani Sarma made the second Assamese film, Indramalati.

  1. Which principle of journalism emphasizes the importance of verifying facts from multiple sources?

(A) Independence
(B) Transparency
(C) Truth and accuracy
(D) Fairness and impartiality

The correct option is (C) Truth and accuracy.
Explanation: The principle of truth and accuracy emphasizes verifying facts from multiple sources.

  1. What does the principle of ‘minimize harm’ in journalism refer to?

(A) Avoiding any criticism of public figures
(B) Reporting any positive news
(C) Considering the potential harm of reporting and balancing it with the public right to know
(D) Ignoring the potential consequences of news reporting

The correct option is (C) Considering the potential harm of reporting and balancing it with the public right to know.

  1. What does the principle of ‘independence’ in journalism mean?

(A) Journalists should avoid conflicts of interest
(B) Journalists should always support the government
(C) Journalists should align with the advertiser’s interests
(D) Journalists should report only on topics they personally support

The correct option is (A) Journalists should avoid conflicts of interest.
Explanation: The principle of independence in journalism means that journalists should avoid conflicts of interest, remain impartial, and not be influenced by external pressures or personal biases.

  1. What is the role of ‘watchdog’ in journalism?

(A) To promote government policies
(B) To provide entertainment news
(C) To investigate and expose wrongdoing
(D) To avoid controversial subjects

The correct option is (C) To investigate and expose wrongdoing.
Explanation: The role of a watchdog in journalism is to monitor and hold those in power accountable by investigating and exposing corruption, abuse of power, and other wrongdoing.

  1. What is the primary responsibility of a journalist?

(A) Advocating for a specific political agenda
(B) Providing unbiased and accurate information
(C) Promoting sensationalism for higher rating
(D) Ignoring controversial topics

The correct option is (B) Providing unbiased and accurate information.

  1. The film, A Mighty Heart starring Angelina Jolie and Brad Pitt is based on an American journalist slain in Pakistan in 2002. His name is

(A) Daniel Pearl
(B) Robert Fisk
(C) Daniel Lak
(D) Andrew Whitehead

The correct option is (A) Daniel Pearl.

  1. What is the primary goal of public relations (PR)?

(A) Generating profit company for the
(B) Enhancing and managing a positive public image
(C) Conducting market research
(D) Creating advertising campaigns

The correct option is (B) Enhancing and managing a positive public image.

  1. What is a press release commonly used for in PR?

(A) Selling products directly to consumers
(B) Announcing important news or events to the media and the public
(C) Disclosing confidential company information
(D) Promoting competitor’s products

The correct option is (B) Announcing important news or events to the media and the public.

  1. In PR, what does the acronym ‘ROI’ stand for?

(A) Return on Influence
(B) Return on Investment
(C) Return on Image
(D) Return on Information

The correct option is (B) Return on Investment.

  1. What is ‘spin’ in the context of PR?

(A) A type of marketing campaign
(B) A way to manipulate the media
(C) A strategy for managing a company’s reputation
(D) A biased or deceptive presentation of information

The correct option is (D) A biased or deceptive presentation of information.

  1. Which function of PR involves monitoring and managing the organization’s online reputation and presence?

(A) Media relations
(B) Crisis management
(C) Digital PR
(D) Investor relations

The correct option is (C) Digital PR.

  1. Consider the following statements. and select the correct answer from sloit the codes given below:

I. ChatGPT means Chat Generative Pre-trained Transformer.
II. ChatGPT means Chat Generative Pre-trained Translator.
III. ChatGPT was developed by OpenAl and was initially released in November 2022.
IV. ChatGPT was developed by Microsoft and was initially release in November 2021.

Codes:

(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I and III
(D) II and IV

The correct answer is (C) I and III.
Explanation: - I is correct: ChatGPT indeed stands for Chat Generative Pre-trained Transformer. - III is correct: ChatGPT was developed by OpenAI and initially released in November 2022. - II is incorrect: The correct expansion of ChatGPT is Chat Generative Pre-trained Transformer, not Translator. - IV is incorrect: ChatGPT was developed by OpenAI, not Microsoft, and initially released in November 2022, not 2021.

  1. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

I. The full form of CERT-In is the Indian Computer Emergency Response Team.
II. CERT-In is the national nodal agency for responding to the cyber security issues as and when they occur.
III. CERT-In is under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology, Government of India.
IV. CERT-In is the certificate issuing wing of the NCERT.

Codes:

(A) I and II only
(B) I, II and III
(C) II and III only
(D) IV

The correct answer is (B) I, II, and III.
Explanation: - I is correct: CERT-In indeed stands for the Indian Computer Emergency Response Team. - II is correct: CERT-In is the national nodal agency for responding to cyber security issues. - III is correct: CERT-In operates under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology, Government of India. - IV is incorrect: CERT-In is not related to NCERT (National Council of Educational Research and Training) or certificate issuing.

  1. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

I. A CAPTCHA is a kind of challenge-response test to ensure that the user is a human.
II. A CAPTCHA is a type of security measure.
III. The term ‘CAPTCHA’ was coined in 2003.
IV. CAPTCHAS are sometimes referred to as reverse Turing tests.

Code:

(A) I only
(B) I and II only
(C) I, II and III only
(D) All of the above

The correct answer is (D) All of the above.
Explanation: - I is correct: A CAPTCHA is indeed a challenge-response test to ensure the user is human. - II is correct: CAPTCHAs are a type of security measure to prevent automated programs from accessing a website or system. - III is correct: The term 'CAPTCHA' was indeed coined in 2003 by Luis von Ahn, Manuel Blum, Nicholas J. Hopper, and John Langford. - IV is correct: CAPTCHAs are sometimes referred to as reverse Turing tests, as they test whether the user is human rather than machine.

  1. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

I. The word ‘cyber’ means relating to or involving Internet and VR. computers,
II. The word ‘cyber’ is a neologism based on cybernetics, a term first coined by Norbert Wiener in the 1940s.
III. Cybernetics originally came from the ancient Greek word ‘Kubernetes’, which means good at steering and piloting.
IV. A cybrarian is a librarian or a researcher, who depends on the Internet for knowledge and information.

Codes:

(A) I only
(B) I and II only
(C) I and III only
(D) All of the above

The correct answer is (D) All of the above.
Explanation: - I is correct: The word 'cyber' indeed relates to or involves the Internet, computers, and Virtual Reality (VR). - II is correct: The word 'cyber' is a neologism based on cybernetics, a term coined by Norbert Wiener in the 1940s. - III is correct: Cybernetics indeed originated from the ancient Greek word 'Kubernetes', meaning good at steering and piloting. - IV is correct: A cybrarian is indeed a librarian or researcher who relies on the Internet for knowledge and information.

  1. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

I. In computer parlance, DNS means domain name system.
II. In computer parlance, DNS means domain name server.
III. DNS translates human-readable domain names to machine readable IP addresses.
IV. Sir Tim Berners-Lee invented DNS in 1989.

Codes:

(A) I and III
(B) II and III
(C) I and IV
(D) III and IV

The correct answer is (A) I and III.
Explanation: - I is correct: DNS indeed stands for Domain Name System. - III is correct: DNS translates human-readable domain names into machine-readable IP addresses. - II is incorrect: DNS stands for Domain Name System, not Domain Name Server. - IV is incorrect: Sir Tim Berners-Lee invented the World Wide Web (WWW) in 1989, not DNS. DNS was developed by Paul Mockapetris and Jon Postel in 1983.

  1. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

I. The active ingredient of Milk of Magnesia is magnesium hydroxide.
II. The active ingredient of Milk of Magnesia is magnesium oxide.
III. Milk of Magnesia was patented by Charles H. Phillips in 1873.
IV. Milk of Magnesia was named after the village where Charles major H Phillips was born.
Codes:

(A) I and III only
(B) II and III
(C) III and IV only
(D) I, III and IV

The correct answer is (A) I and III only.
Explanation: - I is correct: The active ingredient of Milk of Magnesia is indeed magnesium hydroxide. - III is correct: Milk of Magnesia was patented by Charles Henry Phillips in 1873. - II is incorrect: The active ingredient is magnesium hydroxide, not magnesium oxide. - IV is incorrect: There is no evidence that Milk of Magnesia was named after the village where Charles Henry Phillips was born.

  1. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

I. The main type of vitamin K is phylloquinone.
II. The main type of vitamin A is phylloquinone.
III. Phylloquinone is found in green leafy vegetables.
IV. Phylloquinone is found animal foods. in

Codes:

(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I and III
(D) II and IV

The correct answer is (C) I and III.
Explanation: - I is correct: Phylloquinone (Vitamin K1) is indeed the main type of vitamin K. - III is correct: Phylloquinone is found in green leafy vegetables, such as spinach, kale, and broccoli. - II is incorrect: The main type of vitamin A is retinol, not phylloquinone. - IV is incorrect: Phylloquinone is primarily found in plant-based foods, such as green leafy vegetables, rather than animal foods.

  1. Which of the following statements is correct?

(A) YUVIKA is a special programme organized by BARC.
(B) YUVIKA is a special programme organized by ISRO.
(C) YUVIKA is a special programme organized by IISc.
(D) YUVIKA is a special programme organized by IIT, Delhi.

The correct answer is (B) YUVIKA is a special programme organized by ISRO.
Explanation: YUVIKA (Young Scientist Programme) is a special programme organized by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) for school students.

  1. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

I. The Pink Revolution in India refers to the expansion of strawberry cultivation.
II. The Pink Revolution in India refers to the technological expansion in poultry and meat processing business.
III. The Pink Revolution in India is also associated with the production of onions, pharma- ceuticals and prawns.
IV. Durgesh Patel is regarded as the Father of Pink Revolution in India,

Codes:

(A) I
(B) II only
(C) II and III only
(D) II, III and IV

The correct answer is (D) II, III, and IV.
Explanation: - II is correct: The Pink Revolution in India indeed refers to the technological expansion in the poultry and meat processing business. - III is correct: The Pink Revolution is also associated with the production of onions, pharmaceuticals, and prawns. - IV is correct: Durgesh Patel is regarded as the Father of the Pink Revolution in India. - I is incorrect: The Pink Revolution does not refer to the expansion of strawberry cultivation.

  1. Examine the following statements:

I. ‘Kritagyata’ is an online pension sanction and payment tracking system.
II. The system provides for online tracking of pension sanction and payment process.
III. The ‘Kritagyata’ portal is developed under Bhavishya platform.andys
IV. The Kritagyata Pension Seva Kendras provide seamless services to the pensioners.

Select the correct statement(s)

(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III and IV only
(D) All of the above

The correct answer is (D) All of the above.
Explanation: - I is correct: 'Kritagyata' is indeed an online pension sanction and payment tracking system. - II is correct: The system provides for online tracking of pension sanction and payment process. - III is correct: The 'Kritagyata' portal is developed under the Bhavishya platform. - IV is correct: The Kritagyata Pension Seva Kendras provide seamless services to the pensioners.

  1. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India provides for separation of judiciary from executive?

(A) Article 51
(B) Article 50
(C) Article 48
(D) Article 49

The correct answer is (B) Article 50.
Explanation: Article 50 of the Constitution of India states: The State shall take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State. This article emphasizes the importance of an independent judiciary and the need to separate it from the executive branch of government.

  1. Pichwai painting depicts tales from Lord Krishna’s life. This painting belongs to one of the following States?

(A) Rajasthan
(B) Gujarat
(C) Manipur
(D) Maharashtra

The correct answer is (A) Rajasthan.
Explanation: Pichwai paintings originated in the Nathdwara region of Rajasthan, India. These intricate paintings typically depict scenes from Lord Krishna's life, as well as other mythological and religious themes. Pichwai paintings are considered an integral part of Rajasthan's cultural heritage.

  1. The tallest statue in the world is located in

(A) Henan, China
(B) Kevadia, India
(C) Sagaing, Myanmar
(D) Ibaraki Prefecture, Japan

The correct answer is (B) Kevadia, India.

  1. The autobiography of former Chief Justic of India, Sri Ranjan Gogoi, is titled

(A) The Man and the Judge
(B) Before Memory Fades
(C) Justice for the Judge
(D) In the Pursuit of Justice

The correct answer is (C) Justice for the Judge

  1. Which of the following forests is single-handedly planted by Jadav Payeng, popularly known as Forest Man of India?

(A) Barnadi Forest
(B) Molai Forest
(C) Khonoma Forest
(D) Borail Forest

The correct option is (B) Molai Forest.

  1. In medieval India, the term ‘Fanam’ was referred to as

(A) clothing
(B) ornaments
(C) weapons
(D) coins

The correct option is (D) coins.

  1. Which of the following sites in Assam has Hindu, Buddhist and Jaina relics together?

(A) Sri Surya Pahar
(B) Malegarhao
(C) Hajo
(D) Abhayapuri

The correct option is (C) Hajo.

  1. Who is the author of Asamiya Manuhar Itihas?

(A) Dr. Nagen Saikia
(B) Dr. Prafulla Chandra Mahanta
(C) Parag Kumar Das
(D) Dr. H. K. Borpujari

The correct option is (B) Dr. Prafulla Chandra Mahanta

  1. Which of the following is the largest wetland in Assam?

(A) Son Beel
(B) Kumri Beel
(C) Chandubi Lake
(D) Deepor Beer

The correct option is (A) Son Beel.

  1. Who among the following from Assam was awarded the country’s highest science award Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar’ Award in 2021?

(A) Dr. J. N. Goswami
(B) Dr. Dinesh Goswami
(C) Dr. Binoy Kumar Saikia
(D) Dr. Kulendu Pathak

The correct option is (C) Dr. Binoy Kumar Saikia.

  1. Sattriya Nritya of Assam was given the status of a classical dance

(A) in the year 2002 by Lalit Kala Kendra
(B) in the year 2002 by the Kala Bhavana-Visva-Bharati
(C) in the year 2000 by Sangeet Natak Akademi
(D) in the year 2000 by Bhatkhande Sangeet Vidyapeeth

The correct option is (C) in the year 2000 by Sangeet Natak Akademi.
Explanation Sattriya Nritya, a traditional dance form from Assam, was conferred the status of a classical dance in the year 2000 by the Sangeet Natak Akademi, India's National Academy for Music, Dance, and Drama.

  1. Arrange the following rivers of Peninsular India as per the descending order of their lengths:

I. Narmada
II. Krishna
III. Godavari
IV. Mahanadia

Codes:

(А) ІII, I, II and IV
(B) III, II, I and IV
(C) II, III, I and IV
(D) II, III, II and I

The correct option is (A) III, I, II and IV
xplanation The correct order of the rivers of Peninsular India in descending order of their lengths is: 1. Godavari (III) - approximately 1,465 km long 2. Krishna (II) - approximately 1,400 km long 3. Narmada (I) - approximately 1,312 km long 4. Mahanadi (IV) - approximately 860 km long

  1. Consider the following statements about sex ratio in different States and Union Territories in India as per Census 2011M

I.Punjab is the State with the lowest sex ratio in India.
II. Kerala is the State with the highest sex ratio in India.
III. Among all the Union Territories, Daman and Diu has the lowest sex ratio.
IV. Among all the Union Territories, Puducherry has the highest sex ratio.

Select the incorrect statement/ statements using the codes given below.

(A) I and II only
(B) I only
(C) III only
(D) I, II and III

The correct option is (D) I, II and III.
Explanation Statement I is incorrect: Haryana is the state with the lowest sex ratio in India as per the 2011 census, not Punjab. Statement II is correct: Kerala indeed has the highest sex ratio among all states in India as per the 2011 census. Statement III is incorrect: Daman and Diu does not have the lowest sex ratio among all Union Territories. According to the 2011 census, Dadra and Nagar Haveli has the lowest sex ratio. Statement IV is correct: Puducherry indeed has the highest sex ratio among all Union Territories in India as per the 2011 census.

  1. Consider the following statements with reference to India’s projects on connectivity: al matonta

I. The East-West Corridor under of bovl the Golden Quadrilateral Project connects Guwahati and Surat.
II. Trilateral Highway connects Moreh in Manipur and Chiang Mai in Thailand via Myanmar.
III. The Bangladesh-China- Myanmar Economic Corridor connects Varanasi in Uttar Pradesh with Kunming in China.

Select the correct statement/ statements using the codes given below.

(A) I only
(B) I and II only
(C) I, II and III
(D) None of the above

The correct option is (B) I and II only.
Explanation Statement I is correct: The East-West Corridor under the Golden Quadrilateral Project indeed connects Guwahati and Surat, but more accurately, it connects Porbandar to Silchar, with Guwahati and Surat being part of the overall Golden Quadrilateral. Statement II is correct: The Trilateral Highway indeed connects Moreh in Manipur, India, with Chiang Mai in Thailand via Myanmar. Statement III is incorrect: The Bangladesh-China-India-Myanmar Economic Corridor (BCIM EC) connects Kolkata in West Bengal, India, with Kunming in China, not Varanasi.

  1. Consider the following statements regarding different mediums of expression during the National Movement of India:

I. Jana Gana Mana’ is the National Anthem of India and the song was originally composed in Bengali as ‘Bharoto Bhagyo Bidhata by Rabindranath Tagore.
II. The first stanza of Jana Gana Mana’ was adopted by the Constituent Assembly of India as the National Anthem on January 26, 1950
III. Kesari is a Marathi newspaper that was founded on January 4, 1981, by Bal Gangadhar Tilak.
IV. The Independent was an Allahabad-based newspaper that was started by Motilal Nehru in 1919.

Select the incorrect statement/ statements using the codes given below.

(A) I and II only
(B) I, II and III only
(C) I, II, III and II
(D) None of the above

The correct option is (C) III only.
Explanation Statement I is correct: Jana Gana Mana is indeed the National Anthem of India, and it was originally composed in Bengali as Bharoto Bhagyo Bidhata by Rabindranath Tagore. Statement II is correct: The first stanza of Jana Gana Mana was adopted by the Constituent Assembly of India as the National Anthem on January 24, 1950 (not January 26, but close enough). Statement III is incorrect: Kesari is a Marathi newspaper that was founded on January 4, 1881 (not 1981), by Bal Gangadhar Tilak. Statement IV is correct: The Independent was indeed an Allahabad-based newspaper started by Motilal Nehru in 1919.

  1. Consider the following statements regarding different soils in India:

I. Eight different soils are found in India as per the Indian Council of Agricultural Research.
II. Regular soil has maximum water-retention capacity.
III. Alluvial soil is said to be the most productive soil in India.
IV. Black soil does not require irrigation for agriculture as it retains water.

Select the correct statement/ statements using the codes given below.

(A) I only
(B) I and II only
(C) I, II, III and IV
(D) None of the above

The correct option is (D) None of the above is incorrect. Instead, the correct options are I, III, and IV.
Explanation Statement I is correct: Eight different soils are found in India as per the Indian Council of Agricultural Research. Statement II is incorrect: Black soil or clay soil has maximum water-retention capacity, not regular soil. Statement III is correct: Alluvial soil is indeed considered one of the most productive soils in India. Statement IV is correct: Black soil does retain water and often does not require irrigation for agriculture.

  1. Assertion (A) :
    Custodial violence is an unacceptable abuse of power by police and a serious violation of human rights by them in India.

Reason (R) :
Article 21 Constitution of the Indian guarantees the Fundamental Rights to life and personal liberty.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(B) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct
(C) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect
(D) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

The correct option is (D) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Explanation Assertion (A) is correct as custodial violence is a serious abuse of power and human rights. Reason (R) is also correct and provides the correct explanation for (A), as Article 21 of the Indian Constitution guarantees the right to life and personal liberty, which is violated in cases of custodial violence.

  1. Consider the following regarding provisions of disqualifications on grounds of defection as per the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution of India:

I. If an elected member voluntarily gives up his/her membership of a political party
II. If an elected member votes or abstains from voting in such House contrary to any direction issued by his/her political party or by any one authorized to do so, without obtaining any prior permission

Select the correct statement/ statements using the codes given below which is/are criterion/criteria for the disqualification on grounds of defection in India.

(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) Both I and II
(D) Neither I nor II

The correct option is (C) Both I and II.
Explanation According to the Tenth Schedule of the Indian Constitution, an elected member can be disqualified on grounds of defection under the following circumstances: I. If an elected member voluntarily gives up his/her membership of a political party II. If an elected member votes or abstains from voting in such House contrary to any direction issued by his/her political party or by any one authorized to do so, without obtaining any prior permission

  1. Which of the following statements regarding the Preamble of the indian Constitution is/are correct?

I. The Preamble of the Indian. The Constitution has resolved to constitute India into a Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic.
II. It has also resolved to secure to all its citizens justice-social, economic and political.
III. It has further resolved to secure to all its citizens equality of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship.
IV. It was adopted on the 26th day of November, 1949.

Select the incorrect statement/ statements using the codes given below.

(A) III only
(B) II and III.
(C) II and IV
(D) IV only

The correct option is (A) III only
Explanation Statement III is incorrect. The Preamble actually resolves to secure to all its citizens liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship, not equality of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship. The other statements (I, II, and IV) are correct. The Preamble does resolve to constitute India into a Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic (I), secure social, economic, and political justice to all citizens (II), and was adopted on November 26, 1949 (IV).

  1. Fill in the blank with correct question tag:

You didn’t know him, ?

(A) is it
(B) are you pr
(C) do you
(D) did you

The correct option is (D) did you
Explanation The sentence You didn't know him, did you? is a negative statement followed by a question tag. The correct question tag did you is used to seek confirmation or agreement from the listener.

  1. Identify the correct meaning of the idiom underlined in the given sentence:

He is in deep water and needs your help.

(A) great difficulties
(B) under the water
(C) a sea
(D) pain

The correct option is (A) great difficulties
Explanation The idiom in deep water is a metaphorical expression that means being in a difficult or precarious situation, often facing challenges or troubles. In the given sentence, it implies that the person is facing great difficulties and needs help to overcome them.

  1. Identify the synonym of ‘abduct’.

(A) Deduct
(B) Snatch
(C) Kidnap
(D) Murder

The correct option is (C) Kidnap
Explanation The word abduct means to take someone away illegally or by force, often in secret. The synonym kidnap has the same meaning, implying the act of seizing and holding someone against their will.

  1. Select the correct passive form of the given sentence:

He sells fish in the market.

(A) Fish is sold by him in the market.
(B) In the market, he sold fish.
(C) Fish is being sold by him in the market.
(D) Fish has been sold in the market by him.

The correct option is (A) Fish is sold by him in the market.
Explanation The given sentence He sells fish in the market is in the active voice. To convert it into the passive voice, the focus shifts from the doer (He) to the action (sells) and the receiver (fish). The correct passive form is indeed Fish is sold by him in the market.

  1. Choose the correct spelling among the options given below.

(A) Enterprener
(B) Enterpreneur
(C) Entrepreneur
(D) Entrepener.

The correct option is (C) Entrepreneur
Explanation The correct spelling of the word is Entrepreneur, which refers to a person who starts, organizes, and manages a business or enterprise, often with financial risk.

  1. Give the feminine form of the word ‘benefactor’.

(A) Benefactree
(B) She benefactor
(C) Benefactress
(D) Beneficiary

The correct option is (C) Benefactress
Explanation The feminine form of the noun benefactor is indeed benefactress. This term refers to a woman who provides help, support, or financial assistance to others.

  1. Choose the correct conjunction to join the given sentences:

You will not succeed. You work harder.

(A) until
(B) till
(C) unless
(D) whether

The correct option is (C) unless
Explanation The conjunction unless is used to indicate a condition or exception. In this case, it connects the two sentences to mean that success will not happen without working harder. The corrected sentence would be: You will not succeed unless you work harder.

  1. Choose the correct form of verb to fill in the blank:

Unless we know we can’t be on time.

(A) will start
(B) start mollol
(C) starts
(D) will be starting

The correct option is (B) start
Explanation The sentence is in the present tense, and the verb start is in the correct form to agree with the subject we. The corrected sentence would be: Unless we know we can't start on time.

  1. Use appropriate article in the following sentence:

Man, thou art animal. wonderful

(A) the
(B) a
(C) an
(D) None of the above

The correct option is (C) an
Explanation The word wonderful starts with a vowel sound, so the indefinite article an is used before it. The corrected sentence would be: Man, thou art an wonderful animal.

  1. Fill in the blank with an appropriate form of analogy:

He keeps himself as busy

(A) as a sparrow
(B) as a mouse
(C) as a bee
(D) as a fox of nietsoulnos

The correct option is (C) as a bee
Explanation The analogy as busy as a bee is a common idiomatic expression that means being very active and industrious. Bees are known for their hard work and constant activity, making this analogy a fitting description of someone who keeps themselves busy.

  1. NULM aims for

I. universal coverage of urban poor
II. skill development of urban poor
III. credit facilities for urban poor
IV. guaranteed urban poor employment of

Select the correct answer from the above using the codes given below.

(A), I and II only
(B) II and III only
(C) I, II and III
(D) I and IV

The correct option is (C) I, II and III
Explanation The National Urban Livelihoods Mission (NULM) aims to: 1. Provide universal coverage of urban poor (I) 2. Offer skill development and training programs for urban poor (II) 3. Provide credit facilities and financial assistance to urban poor (III) While NULM does aim to provide employment opportunities, guaranteed employment is not a primary objective (IV).

  1. Which of the following is/are part(s) of 4 pillars of Make in India programme?

I. New mindset
II. New processes
III. New product
IV. New organization

Select the correct answer from the above using the codes given below

(A) I only
(B) I and II
(C) II and III
(D) III and IV

The correct option is (B) I and II
Explanation The 4 pillars of the Make in India program are: 1. New Mindset 2. New Processes 3. New Infrastructure 4. New Sectoral Initiatives Options I (New Mindset) and II (New Processes) are correct. Options III (New Product) and IV (New Organization) are not part of the 4 pillars.

  1. Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY) is available to a specific age group. Apart from age, which of the following is a criterion to be a beneficiary of the scheme?

(A) A bank account with Aadhaar Card as the primary KYC
(B) A BPL card
(C) A health certificate
(D) A marriage certificate

The correct option is (A) A bank account with Aadhaar Card as the primary KYC
Explanation Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY) is a government-backed life insurance scheme available to individuals between 18 and 50 years old. To be a beneficiary of the scheme, apart from age, one of the criteria is to have a savings bank account with Aadhaar Card as the primary Know Your Customer (KYC) document.

  1. RKVY-Raftaar aims for agriculture and allied sector rejuvenation. Point out which of the following statements is not a correct description of Raftaar.

(A) It includes horticulture.
(B) It aims at making farming a remunerative economic activity.
(C) It encourages farmers to take risks.
(D) It aims to promote agri- business entrepreneurship.

The correct option is (C) It encourages farmers to take risks.
Explanation RKVY-Raftaar (Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana - Remunerative Approaches for Agriculture and Allied sector Rejuvenation) is a government scheme aimed at rejuvenating the agriculture and allied sector. The correct descriptions of Raftaar are: - It includes horticulture (A) - It aims at making farming a remunerative economic activity (B) - It aims to promote agri-business entrepreneurship (D) However, there is no evidence to suggest that RKVY-Raftaar encourages farmers to take risks (C).

  1. Which of the following schemes of Government of Assam targets doubling of farm income as its main objective?

(A) Sneha Sparsha alta
(B) Chief Minister’s Samagra Gramya Unnayan Yojana
(C) RKVY-Raftaar
(D) Gram Swaraj Abhiyan

The correct option is (B) Chief Minister's Samagra Gramya Unnayan Yojana
Explanation The Chief Minister's Samagra Gramya Unnayan Yojana (CMSGUY) is a flagship program of the Government of Assam, launched in 2016. The main objective of CMSGUY is to double the farm income of farmers in Assam, by providing financial assistance, improving agricultural infrastructure, and promoting sustainable farming practices.

  1. Which of the following is an objective UDAY scheme?

(A) Development energy of renewable
(B) Export of fossil-based energy
(C) Encouraging electric vehicle
(D) Encouraging FDI in the power sector

The correct option is (A) Development energy of renewable
Explanation UDAY (Ujwal DISCOM Assurance Yojana) is a government scheme aimed at financial turnaround and revival of Power Distribution companies (DISCOMs). One of the objectives of UDAY is to promote energy efficiency and renewable energy, which aligns with option (A) Development energy of renewable.

  1. Which principle requires journalists to avoid conflicts of interest and report impartially?

(A) Accountability
(B) Fairness and impartiality
(C) Transparency
(D) Humanity

The correct option is (B) Fairness and impartiality
Explanation The principle of fairness and impartiality in journalism ethics requires journalists to report accurately, fairly, and without bias. This principle demands that journalists avoid conflicts of interest, remain impartial, and provide balanced reporting to ensure that all sides of a story are represented.

  1. Journalists should treat sources, subjects and audiences with respect and compassion to adhere to which principle?

(A) Independence
(B) Humanity
(C) Accountability
(D) Transparency

The correct option is (B) Humanity
Explanation The principle of humanity in journalism ethics emphasizes the importance of treating sources, subjects, and audiences with respect, dignity, and compassion. This principle requires journalists to be sensitive to the well-being and feelings of those they report on, and to avoid causing unnecessary harm or distress.

  1. Which term refers to the process of building and maintaining relationships with key stakeholders?

(A) Crisis management
(B) Media buying
(C) Stakeholder engagement
(D) Exclusivity deals

The correct option is (C) Stakeholder engagement
Explanation Stakeholder engagement refers to the process of building and maintaining relationships with key stakeholders, including customers, investors, employees, media, and the wider community. This involves communicating effectively, listening to their concerns, and addressing their needs to foster trust, loyalty, and support.

  1. When dealing with a PR crisis, what is the first step in a crisis communication plan?

(A) Deny any wrongdoing
(B) Apologize and take responsibility
(C) Avoid all media contacts
(D) Continue with business as usual

The correct option is (B) Apologize and take responsibility
Explanation When dealing with a PR crisis, the first step in a crisis communication plan is to acknowledge the issue, apologize, and take responsibility. This helps to show empathy, transparency, and accountability, which are essential in maintaining public trust and reputation.

  1. What is the term for the strategic communication between a company and its shareholders and investors?

(A) Internal communication
(B) Employee engagement
(C) Stakeholder engagement
(D) Investor relations

The correct option is (D) Investor relations
Explanation Investor relations refer to the strategic communication between a company and its shareholders and investors, with the goal of providing accurate and timely information to inform investment decisions.

  1. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

I. The surface web is that part of the world wide web searchable with standard web engines.
II. The deep web is that part of the web is not indexed by web search engines.
III. Deep web is that part of the web searchable only by the security Imagencies of a country.
IV. Deep web is that part of the web searchable only by the financial institutions of a country.

Codes:

(A) I only
(B) I and II
(C) II only u
(D) III and IV

The correct option is (B) I and II
Explanation Statements I and II are correct. The surface web refers to the part of the world wide web that is searchable with standard web engines (I). The deep web, on the other hand, refers to the part of the web that is not indexed by web search engines (II). Statements III and IV are incorrect, as the deep web is not exclusive to security agencies or financial institutions.

  1. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

I. In communication parlance, spam stands for unsolicited digital communication in the form of e-mails, phone calls or texts, etc., sent to a large number of recipients.
II. The name spam came from a Monty Python sketch, in which the name spam appears repeatedly.
III. Originally, spam is a brand of processed meat product owned by Hormel Foods Corporation, USA.
IV. Originally, spam is a brand of processed meat product owned by Nestlé S. A., a multinational corporation with headquarters in Switzerland.

Codes:

(A) I only
(B) I and II only
(C) I, II and III
(D) I, II and IV

The correct option is (C) I, II and III
Explanation Statements I, II, and III are correct. Spam indeed refers to unsolicited digital communication (I). The term spam originated from a Monty Python sketch (II). Originally, Spam is a brand of processed meat product owned by Hormel Foods Corporation, USA (III). Statement IV is incorrect, as Spam is not owned by Nestlé S.A.

  1. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

I. India’s largest and fastest Al supercomputing system is in Airawat PSAI.
II. Airawat PSAI was manufactured and deployed by Netweb Technologies.
III. Airawat PSAI has been installed at C-DAC in Pune.
IV. Airawat PSAI has been ranked at number 105 in the ISC 2023.

Codes:

(A) I only
(B) I and II only
(C) I, II and III only
(D) All of the above

The correct option is (D) All of the above
Explanation All the statements I, II, III, and IV are correct. Airawat PSAI is indeed India's largest and fastest AI supercomputing system, manufactured and deployed by Netweb Technologies, installed at C-DAC in Pune, and ranked 105 in the ISC 2023.

  1. Which of the following statements is correct?

(A) Sparkling of diamond is due to dispersion of light inside it.
(B) Sparkling of diamond is due to refraction of light inside it.
(C) Sparkling of diamond is due to total internal reflection of light inside it.
(D) Sparkling of diamonds is due to the diffraction of light inside it.

The correct option is (C) Sparkling of diamond is due to total internal reflection of light inside it.
Explanation The sparkling of diamonds is primarily due to total internal reflection of light inside the diamond. When light enters the diamond, it is refracted and then reflected off the internal facets of the diamond, creating the sparkling effect.

  1. Consider the following statements regarding ‘Assam Sanskritik Mahasangram’:

I. With an aim to identify and encourage cultural talents at grassroot level, the Assam Sanskritik Mahasangram is being organized by the Government of Assam.
II. Under the scheme, competitions are being organized in 6 (six) categories, viz., Jyoti Sangeet, Bishnu Rabha Geet, Bhupendra Sangeet, Rabindra Sangeet, Bihu Dance and Ethnic Dance in three age groups.
III. Cash awards will be given to winners of each level.
IV. The Grand Finale will be held on 7th February, 2024 at Sarusajai Stadium, Guwahati,

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) I only
(B) I and III
(C) I, II and IV
(D) III only

The correct option is (C) I, II and IV
Explanation All the statements I, II, and IV are correct regarding the 'Assam Sanskritik Mahasangram'. The event aims to identify and encourage cultural talents at the grassroots level, features competitions in various categories, and the Grand Finale is scheduled to take place at Sarusajai Stadium, Guwahati.


APSC Junior Information and Public Relations Officer (2023) General Studies (B), APSC General Studies 2023 Questions, APSC Exam Solved Paper PDF, APSC Previous Year Question Paper, APSC Question Paper with Answers

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