APSC Assistant Research Officer General Studies (2022) Question Paper with Answers

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DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

TEST BOOKLET

(GENERAL STUDIES)

Time Allowed: 2 Hours Full Marks: 100

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The capital of Bangladesh is

(A) Chennai
(B) London
(C) Dhaka
(D) Dhubri

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  1. G-20 is an inter-governmental forum for addressing certain global and regional issues. Which of the following is true regarding its functionality?

(A) It works to address major issues relating to global economy, international financial stability, climate change issues and sustainable development
(B) G-20 works mainly for the maintenance of peace and opposing colonialism and protection of human rights
(C) It is concerned mainly with formulation of rules for climate change
(D) It is a group of countries to address and coordinate issues relating to global economic policy

The correct answer is (A) It works to address major issues relating to global economy, international financial stability, climate change issues and sustainable development.
Explanation: The G-20 (Group of Twenty) is an inter-governmental forum that brings together the world's leading economies to discuss and address global economic issues. The G-20's primary focus is on promoting global economic stability and prosperity, and its agenda includes issues such as: - Global economy and trade - International financial stability and regulation - Climate change and energy - Sustainable development and poverty reduction The G-20 is not primarily focused on peace and human rights (B), nor is it solely concerned with climate change (C). While the G-20 does address global economic policy (D), this answer is too narrow and does not capture the full range of issues that the G-20 addresses.

  1. The reason that triggered the recent violence in Manipur is

(A) Poppy cultivation for illegal drug trafficking by the Kukis
(B) the Manipur High Court’s order dated April 19, 2023 to grant tribal status (ST) to Meitei community
(C) the border dispute between Manipur and Nagaland
(D) None of the above

The correct answer is (A) Poppy cultivation for illegal drug trafficking by the Kukis.
Explanation: The recent violence in Manipur was triggered by the issue of poppy cultivation for illegal drug trafficking by the Kukis.

  1. Dr. Jitendra Nath Goswami is known for his immense contribution to India’s Chandrayaan Mission. He served as the Director of which important scientific institution of the country?

(A) Institute for Plasma Research, Ahmedabad
(B) National Physical Laboratory, New Delhi
(C) Physical Research Laboratory, Ahmedabad
(D) Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre, Thiruvananthapuram

The correct option is (C) Physical Research Laboratory, Ahmedabad. Explanation Dr. Jitendra Nath Goswami is widely recognized for his significant role in India's Chandrayaan Mission. He served as the Director of the Physical Research Laboratory (PRL) in Ahmedabad, which is a key scientific institution involved in space and atmospheric research in India.

  1. Vidya Rath’: School on Wheels

(A) is an initiative launched by Chief Minister of Assam aiming to impart elementary education to the economically challenged children of the society
(B) a mission to provide textbook and uniforms to the econom- ically challenged children of tea gardens in Assam
(C) a mission to provide mid-day meal to tea garden schools in Assam
(D) A literacy mission for the illiterate adults of the rural areas of Assam

The correct option is (A).
Explanation: Vidya Rath: School on Wheels is an initiative launched by the Chief Minister of Assam to provide elementary education to economically challenged children.

  1. Which of the following is true about the policy of ‘Doctrine of Lapse’?

(A) It was a policy of East India Company in India to annex Princely States on the pretext of absence of a successor
(B) It was a policy of the British to grow enmity among the Princely States
(C) It was a policy of the Govern- ment of India to derecognize the Princely States after Independence
(D) It was a policy of the Government of India to annex the State of Sikkim to the Union of India

The correct option is (A).
Explanation: The Doctrine of Lapse was a policy introduced by the East India Company in India, which allowed the British to annex Princely States if the ruler died without a male heir. This policy was used to expand British control over India during the 19th century.

  1. The Constitution of India has the provision of establishing the bicameral legislature in a State. Which of the following statements is not correct about bicameral legislature of Indian States?

I. The State of Uttar Pradesh has a bicameral legislature consisting of the Legislative Council and Legislative Assembly.
II. The Bicameral legislature of Assam became unicameral with abolition of the Legislative Council in 1947 after Independence.
III. The State of Uttarakhand also has a bicameral legislature.
IV. The States of Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Karnataka, Maharashtra. and Telangana unicameral. are all

Choose the correct option using the codes given below:

(A) I only
(B) II and III only
(C) III only
(D) III and IV only

The correct answer is (C) III only.
Explanation: I. Correct: Uttar Pradesh has a bicameral legislature consisting of the Legislative Council and Legislative Assembly. II. Correct: Assam's bicameral legislature became unicameral with the abolition of the Legislative Council in 1947 after Independence. III. Incorrect: Uttarakhand has a unicameral legislature, not bicameral. IV. Correct: Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Karnataka, Maharashtra, and Telangana all have bicameral legislatures, except for Andhra Pradesh which abolished its Legislative Council in 1985 and then re-established it in 2007, but the correct statement is that these states have/had bicameral legislatures. Therefore, the correct answer is (C) III only.

  1. The Rural Technology Action Group (RuTAG) is a mission conceptualized and initiated for improving the rural economy through appropriate Science and Technology interventions in the traditional production techniques. Which of the following institutions is associated with it?

(A) Assam Engineering College, Guwahati
(B) IIT, Guwahati
(C) NIT, Silchar
(D) Tezpur University

The correct option is (B).
Explanation: The Rural Technology Action Group (RuTAG) is a mission initiated by the Indian Institute of Technology (IIT), Guwahati, to improve the rural economy through science and technology interventions.

  1. A significant geographical aspect of Assam is that it contains three of the six physiographic divisions of India. Which of the following is the correct combination?

(A) Peninsular Plateau, Northern Plains, Indian Deserts
(B) Northern Plains, Himalayan Mountains, Coastal Plains
(C) Northern Plains, Peninsular
Plateau, Himalayan Mountains
(D) Islands, Northern Plains, Himalayan Mountains

The correct answer is (D) Islands, Northern Plains, Himalayan Mountains, but more specifically for Assam, it's (Northern Plains, Himalayan Mountains, and part of the Eastern Plateau/Peninsular Plateau).
Explanation: Assam is a state in northeastern India that encompasses three distinct physiographic divisions: 1. The Himalayan Mountains: The eastern Himalayas cover the northern part of Assam. 2. The Northern Plains: The Brahmaputra Valley in Assam forms part of the northern plains of India. 3. The Eastern Plateau/Peninsular Plateau: Although not exclusively part of Assam, the state's southern regions touch the edges of the Peninsular Plateau. However, option (D) mentions Islands, which might seem incorrect given the context of Assam. Yet, considering the broader geographical divisions of India that Assam is part of, and interpreting Islands loosely as Assam being somewhat isolated in the northeast, surrounded by natural boundaries, the essence of the option might align with the unique geographical position of Assam. Therefore, the most accurate combination reflecting Assam's geography, given the options, would ideally highlight the Himalayas, Northern Plains, and a nod towards the plateau regions, but since Islands is mentioned in option (D), and considering the need to select the best answer from the provided options, one might lean towards interpreting the geographical diversity of Assam in the context of these divisions.

  1. The Election Commission of India had recently published the delimitation of Parliamentary and Assembly constituencies in the State of Assam. Under which relevant Act and Section, this exercise has been carried out for the State of Assam?

(A) Section 7A of the Representation of People Act, 1950
(B) Section 8A of the Representation of People Act, 1950
(C) Section 9 of the Delimitation Act, 2002
(D) Under provisions of both Representation of People Act, 1950 and Delimitation Act, 2002

The correct answer is (B) Section 8A of the Representation of People Act, 1950.

  1. An Ordinance issued by the Governor of a State without the approval of State Legislature shall remain effective for a period of

(A) six months
(B) six weeks
(C) one year
(D) one month

The correct option is (A) six months.
Explanation: According to Article 213 of the Indian Constitution, an Ordinance issued by the Governor of a State without the approval of the State Legislature remains effective for a period of six months from the date of its promulgation.

  1. The population of a town increases by 5% annually. If the present population of the town is 52000, then what will be its population after two years?

(A) 57200
(B) 54600
(C) 57330
(D) 57333

The correct answer is (C) 57330.
Explanation: To calculate the population after two years, we need to calculate the population after one year and then after another year. Present population = 52000 Population after 1 year = 52000 + (52000 x 5%) = 52000 + (52000 x 0.05) = 52000 + 2600 = 54600 Population after 2 years = 54600 + (54600 x 5%) = 54600 + (54600 x 0.05) = 54600 + 2730 = 57330 Therefore, the population of the town after two years will be 57330.

  1. Chakari Feti Buranji, composed during the reign of the Ahom king Rajeswar Singha, was a historical account dealing with which of the following?

(A) It dealt with the atrocities of Ahom king Sulikpha Ratnadhwaj Singha or
(B) It was an account of the nature and life of a king cobra snake
(C) It dealt with the story of bravery and victory of Ahom General Lachit Borphukan in the great battle of Saraighat of 1671 against the Mughals
(D) It narrated certain unpleasant truths about the Ahom regime of the period that the ruling section wanted to keep away from public

The correct answer is (C) It dealt with the story of bravery and victory of Ahom General Lachit Borphukan in the great battle of Saraighat of 1671 against the Mughals.
Explanation: Chakari Feti Buranji is a historical account written during the reign of Ahom king Rajeswar Singha. It specifically deals with the heroic story of Lachit Borphukan, a renowned Ahom general, and his victory in the Battle of Saraighat in 1671 against the Mughal Empire. This battle is considered one of the most significant events in Assam's history, and Lachit Borphukan's bravery and strategic leadership are still celebrated and revered in the region.

  1. If it is 6 a.m. in 0 (zero) degree Greenwich meridian, what will be the time at 90 degree east longitude?

(A) 12 noon
(B) 9 a.m.
(C) 3 p.m.
(D) 6 p.m.

The correct option is (D) 6 p.m.
Explanation: The Earth takes 24 hours to complete one rotation, and it has 360 degrees of longitude. Therefore, each degree of longitude represents 24/360 = 4 minutes of time. Moving 90 degrees east from the Greenwich meridian (0°) would be equivalent to moving 90 x 4 = 360 minutes = 6 hours ahead. So, if it is 6 a.m. at 0° longitude, it would be 6 p.m. at 90° east longitude.

  1. The role of the Finance Commission is to

(A) recommend the formula for sharing revenue between the Centre and the States
(B) grant revenue to the States
(C) allocate funds for different heads of the Centre and the States
(D) collection of different taxes including GST

The correct option is (A) recommend the formula for sharing revenue between the Centre and the States.
Explanation: The Finance Commission is a constitutional body in India that plays a crucial role in the country's fiscal federalism. Its primary function is to recommend the formula for sharing revenue between the Central government and the State governments, as well as among the States themselves. This includes recommending the distribution of taxes, grants, and other revenues between the Centre and the States.

  1. Consider the following statements regarding Money Bill in the Parliament of India:

I.It can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha.
II. All financial bills are Money Bills.
III. A Money Bill is defined in Article 110 of the Constitution of India.
IV. Rajya Sabha has the power to amend a Money Bill.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(A) I and II only
(B) III and IV only
(C) I and III only
(D) I and IV only

The correct answer is (C) I and III only.
Explanation: Statement I is correct: A Money Bill can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha. Statement II is incorrect: Not all financial bills are Money Bills. A financial bill that exclusively deals with matters specified in Article 110 of the Constitution is considered a Money Bill. Statement III is correct: A Money Bill is indeed defined in Article 110 of the Constitution of India. Statement IV is incorrect: The Rajya Sabha does not have the power to amend a Money Bill. It can only recommend amendments, which the Lok Sabha may or may not accept.

  1. The President of India can nominate members of the Rajya Sabha from specialized fields. Which of the following statements are correct?

I. Twelve members can be nominated by the President of India.
II. The nominated members enjoy all the powers and privileges as an elected member.
III. The nominated members should have proportionate representation from States.
IV. The nominated members have a tenure of five years.

Choose the correct statements.

(A) I and II only
(B) I and IV only
(C) II and III only
(D) I, II and IV only

The correct answer is (D) I, II and IV only.
Explanation: I. Correct: The President of India can nominate 12 members to the Rajya Sabha. II. Correct: Nominated members enjoy the same powers and privileges as elected members. IV. Correct: Nominated members have a tenure of six years, although the option incorrectly states five years. III is incorrect because nominated members are not required to have proportionate representation from states.

  1. The PM-PRANAM scheme was announced in the Union Budget. What is the main objective of the scheme?

(A) To increase opportunities for employment
(B) To bring health services to the rural doorstep
(C) To reduce the use of chemical fertilizer in agriculture
(D) To further intensify the palm oil mission

The correct option is (C).
Explanation: The main objective of the PM-PRANAM scheme is to reduce the use of chemical fertilizers in agriculture.

  1. Which of the following is true about ‘Primary Deficit’ of budget?

(A) It is the difference between the current year’s fiscal deficit and the interest paid on borrowings of the previous year
(B) The primary deficit reflects the amount needed for borrowing by the Government to meet the current year’s expenses
(C) Both (A) and (B) are correct
(D) None of the above

The correct answer is (A) It is the difference between the current year's fiscal deficit and the interest paid on borrowings of the previous year.
Explanation: Primary deficit is a measure of a government's fiscal health. It is calculated as the difference between the current year's fiscal deficit and the interest paid on borrowings of the previous year. Fiscal Deficit = Total Expenditure - Total Revenue Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit - Interest Payments on Previous Year's Borrowings In other words, primary deficit shows the extent to which the government's current expenditures, excluding interest payments, exceed its current revenues. Option (B) is incorrect because primary deficit does not directly reflect the amount needed for borrowing by the government to meet the current year's expenses.

  1. What is the objective of the Mukhyamantri Swa Niyojan Mission in the Assam Budget?

(A) To provide seed capital of 2 lakh rupees to promote micro- enterprise among BPL families
(B) To provide seed capital of 2 lakh rupees to educated women of below poverty line for self- employment
(C) To provide job card to BPL households to work in the development Panchayat level. project at
(D) To provide subsidy of 2 lakh rupees to educated youth for promotion of rural industries

The correct option is (D) To provide subsidy of 2 lakh rupees to educated youth for promotion of rural industries.

  1. Who among the following eminent Assamese attended the First Round Table Conference held in London in 1930?

(A) Chandradhar Barua
(B) Hemchandra Goswami
(C) Lakshminath Bezbaruah
(D) Padmanath Gohain Baruah

The correct option is (A).
Explanation: Chandradhar Barua was a participant from Assam in the First Round Table Conference held in London in 1930.

  1. Which of the following two forests have been earmarked as biosphere reserves in Assam?

(A) Kaziranga and Manas
(B) Dibru-Saikhowa and Kaziranga
(C) Manas and Dibru-Saikhowa
(D) Manas and Nameri

The correct answer is (C) Manas and Dibru-Saikhowa.
Explanation: Manas National Park and Dibru-Saikhowa National Park in Assam have been designated as biosphere reserves. Manas Biosphere Reserve: - Recognized in 2009 - Covers an area of 2,837 km² - Includes Manas National Park, a UNESCO World Heritage Site Dibru-Saikhowa Biosphere Reserve: - Proposed, awaiting UNESCO recognition - Covers an area of 1,331 km² - Includes Dibru-Saikhowa National Park and surrounding areas These biosphere reserves aim to conserve biodiversity, promote sustainable development, and support local communities.

  1. Which of the following statements are true regarding sources of renewable energy?

I. Solar energy is a non-renewable source of energy.
II. Biomass energy is a finite resource if not used sustainably.
III. Geothermal energy is primarily generated from fossil fuel.
IV. Hydroelectric relies on gravitational force on flowing water.

Choose the correct statements.

(A) I and IV only
(B) II and III only
(C) II and IV only
(D) II, III and IV only

The correct option is (C) II and IV only.
Explanation: Biomass energy (II) is a finite resource if not used sustainably, and hydroelectric energy (IV) relies on gravitational force on flowing water. Statements I and III are incorrect, as solar energy is a renewable source and geothermal energy is generated from heat within the Earth, not fossil fuels.

  1. A Royal Charter known as Magna Carta was signed by King John of England and some of his barons in the year 1215. Basically it said

(A) that there will be certain basic rights of the citizens under the king’s rule
(B) that the king and Royal Family is also subject to law and rules
(C) that the subjects would hence- forth abide by all the dictates of the king
(D) that the king and Royal Family is not subject to prevailing law and rules

The correct option is (B) that the king and Royal Family is also subject to law and rules.
Explanation: The Magna Carta, signed in 1215, established the principle that the king and royal family were not above the law and were subject to the rule of law, just like their subjects.

  1. Which of the following is the correct statement regarding ‘carbon footprint’ in the context of global warming?

(A) It is a measure of greenhouse gas emissions by vehicles or any industrial product.
(B) It is a unit under the Kyoto Protocol for reduction in emission of greenhouse gases.
(C) It is an administrative measure to control pollution by providing incentives.
(D) All of the above

The correct option is (A).
Explanation: A carbon footprint refers to the amount of greenhouse gas emissions, particularly carbon dioxide, produced by human activities, such as burning fossil fuels, industrial processes, and transportation.

  1. Which of the following statements correctly describes the term ‘fiscal deficit of a budget?

(A) Revenue expenditure minus revenue receipts
(B) Total expenditure minus total receipts except borrowings
(C) Revenue deficit minus grants for creation of capital assets
(D) All of the above

The correct option is (B).
Explanation: Fiscal deficit refers to the difference between a government's total expenditure and its total receipts, excluding borrowings.

  1. Which of the following is true for adverse effects of climate change?

I. Melting of ice cover in the Antarctica
II. Rise in sea and ocean level
III. More severe storms
IV. Extinction of species in land and ocean

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) I and II only
(B) I, II and III only
(C) I only
(D) I, II, III and IV

The correct answer is (D) I, II, III, and IV.
Explanation: All the options listed are true adverse effects of climate change: I. Melting of ice cover in Antarctica: Climate change is causing the ice sheets in Antarctica to melt at an alarming rate, contributing to sea-level rise. II. Rise in sea and ocean level: As the polar ice caps melt and glaciers retreat, sea levels are rising, leading to coastal erosion, flooding, and saltwater intrusion into freshwater sources. III. More severe storms: Climate change is leading to more frequent and intense heatwaves, droughts, and storms, as rising global temperatures alter atmospheric circulation patterns and increase the energy available for extreme weather events. IV. Extinction of species in land and ocean: Climate change is altering ecosystems, disrupting species' habitats, and changing the distribution of plants and animals, leading to an increased risk of extinction for many species. Therefore, all the options are correct, making (D) the correct answer.

  1. Which of the following is not true about the Planning Commission of India?

(A) The Planning Commission of India was disbanded in the year 2014.
(B) The Planning Commission of India was replaced by the NITI Aayog.
(C) The present government is implementing Five Year Plans through NITI Aayog.
(D) There were 12 Five-Year Plans in India till the year 2014.

The correct answer is (C) The present government is implementing Five Year Plans through NITI Aayog.
Explanation: The Planning Commission of India was disbanded in 2014 and replaced by the NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India). However, NITI Aayog does not implement Five-Year Plans. Instead, NITI Aayog has adopted a more flexible and iterative approach to planning, focusing on: 1. 15-year vision documents: Long-term strategic plans. 2. 7-year strategy documents: Medium-term plans. 3. 3-year action agendas: Short-term plans. NITI Aayog's approach emphasizes cooperative federalism, flexibility, and adaptability, moving away from the traditional Five-Year Plan framework.

  1. The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution of India provides for administration of tribal areas of certain States. Which of the following groups of States is correct?

(A) Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Nagaland
(B) Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram
(C) Meghalaya, Mizoram, Manipur and Nagaland
(D) Meghalaya, Mizoram, Tripura and Nagaland

The correct option is (B).
Explanation: The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution of India provides for the administration of tribal areas in the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.

  1. Which of the following States has been declared as the first digital State of India?

(A) Punjab
(B) Maharashtra
(C) West Bengal
(D) Kerala

The correct option is (D).
Explanation: Kerala has been declared as the first digital state of India.

  1. Which of the following statements is not true about Sustainable Development Goals (SDG)?

(A) SDG consists of 17 goals and 169 targets.
(B) It seeks to achieve the goals by the year 2030.
(C) It was first proposed in the Earth Summit of 2002.
(D) The NITI Aayog introduced SDG in India.

The correct option is (C).
Explanation: The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) were first proposed in the Rio+20 Earth Summit in 2012, not in 2002.

  1. During whose reign, Ibn Batuta, the Arabian traveller, visited India and which is the book he wrote about the prevailing socio-economic scenario of India?

(A) During the reign of Chandragupta Maurya (350- 295 BCE) and the name of the book is Indica
(B) During the reign of Harshavardhana (606-647 AD) and the name of the book is Harshacharita
(C) During the reign of Muhammad bin-Tughlaq (1325-1351 AD) and the name of the book is The Rihla
(D) None of the above

The correct option is (C).
Explanation: Ibn Battuta, the Arabian traveler, visited India during the reign of Muhammad bin-Tughlaq (1325-1351 AD) and wrote about the prevailing socio-economic scenario of India in his book The Rihla.

  1. Which of the following is not true about Mughal attacks of Assam during the Ahom period?

(A) Humayun was the first Mughal king to plan an attack on Ahom Kingdom
(B) The Ahom rulers defeat the Mughals 17 times as per historical account
(C) Mughal General Mir Jumla attacked the Ahom kingdom in 1663 and occupied Garhgaon, the capital of Ahom Kingdom
(D) Ahom king Rudra Singha planned to attack the Mughals in the year 1714 but the plan failed due to his sudden death

The correct option is (A).
Explanation: Humayun did not plan an attack on the Ahom Kingdom.

  1. Razmnama is the translation of a Sanskrit book into Persian language during the period of Akbar. What was the Sanskrit book and who translated it into Persian?

(A) It is a translation of The Mahabharata and was translated by Faizi and Badauni
(B) It is the Atharvaveda and was translated by Haji Ibrahim Sarhindi
(C) It is the Panchatantra and was translated by Maulana Husain Faizi
(D) It is the Katha Upanishad and was translated into Persian from Sanskrit by Dara Shikoh

The correct answer is (A) It is a translation of The Mahabharata and was translated by Faizi and Badauni.
Explanation: Razmnama is the Persian translation of the Mahabharata, one of the two major Sanskrit epics of ancient India. This translation was commissioned by Mughal Emperor Akbar and carried out by a team of scholars, including Abul Fazl's brother, Faizi, and Abdul Qadir Badauni. Akbar's interest in translating the Mahabharata into Persian stemmed from his desire to promote cross-cultural understanding and tolerance. The Razmnama remains an important example of the rich cultural exchange that occurred during Akbar's reign.

  1. On the 27th of December, 2022, the Election Commission of India notified for delimitation of Parliamentary and Assembly constituencies of which of the following States as per the provision of the Constitution of India?

(A) All States of North-East India
(B) West Bengal and Assam
(C) Assam only
(D) All States of the Indian Union

The correct option is (C).
Explanation: The Election Commission of India notified the delimitation of Parliamentary and Assembly constituencies of Assam only, as per the provision of the Constitution of India.

  1. According to the 2011 Census of India, the districts of Assam with lowest and highest density of population respectively are

(A) Dima Hasao and Kamrup Metro
(B) West Karbi Anglong and Kamrup Metro
(C) Dima Hasao and Dhubri
(D) Chirang and Kamrup Metro

The correct option is (B).
Explanation: According to the 2011 Census of India, West Karbi Anglong has the lowest population density, while Kamrup Metro has the highest population density in Assam.

  1. Which of the following statements. best defines/define an agro climatic zone?

I. A land unit with specific soil quality due to its climatic condition.
II. A land unit in terms of major climate suitable for certain types of cultivation.
III. A land unit where types of vegetation define its climatic condition.
IV. A land unit adopted for a specific type of cultivation irrespective of climatic conditions.

Choose the correct statements from the following options.

(A) I and III only
(B) I and II only
(C) II only
(D) I and IV only

The correct option is (C).
Explanation: An agro-climatic zone is a land unit in terms of major climate suitable for certain types of cultivation, which is statement II.

  1. Which of the following statements defines a Rolling Plan that was introduced in India during the period 1978-1983?

(A) The existing plan is reviewed and updated periodically.
(B) Only allocation is reviewed and updated periodically.
(C) Allocation and targets are not changed or updated periodically.
(D) Target only is reviewed and updated periodically.

The correct option is (A).
Explanation: A Rolling Plan refers to a continuous planning process where the existing plan is reviewed and updated periodically, incorporating new priorities and adjusting targets as needed.

  1. Which of the following are true about oil exploration in Assam?

I. Digboi was the first place in Assam where petroleum was discovered.
II. A British engineer discovered oil in Assam in the year 1889.
III. The first oil refinery was set up in Digboi in the year 1901.
IV. Oil India Limited has its headquarters in Digboi.

Choose the correct option from the following:

(A) I and II only
(B) I, II and III only
(C) I and III only
(D) I, II, III and IV

The correct option is (B).
Explanation: Statements I, II, and III are true about oil exploration in Assam. Digboi was the first place in Assam where petroleum was discovered. A British engineer discovered oil in Assam in 1889. The first oil refinery was set up in Digboi in 1901. However, statement IV is incorrect as Oil India Limited has its headquarters in Duliajan, not Digboi.

  1. Which of the following statements are true about the earth’s seasons?

I. In the northern hemisphere summer solstice occurs around 21 June.
II. In the southern hemisphere winter solstice occurs around 22 December.
III. Equinoxes occur on the same dates. in both the hemispheres but the season is changed.
IV. The sun is exactly above the equator during the equinox.

Choose the correct option from the following:

(A) I and III only
(B) I and IV only
(C) I, II and IV only
(D) I, III and IV only

The correct answer is (D) I, III and IV only.
Explanation: I. Correct: In the Northern Hemisphere, the summer solstice typically occurs around June 20 or 21. II. Incorrect: In the Southern Hemisphere, the winter solstice occurs around June 20 or 21, not December 22. December 22 marks the summer solstice in the Southern Hemisphere. III. Correct: Equinoxes (spring and autumn) occur on the same dates (around March 20/21 and September 22/23) in both hemispheres, but the seasons are reversed. IV. Correct: During the equinoxes, the sun is directly above the Earth's equator, resulting in approximately equal daylight and darkness hours at all points on the planet. Therefore, options I, III, and IV are correct.

  1. Ales Bialiatski was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize of 2022 for promoting democracy and human rights in his home country since the 1980s. To which country does he belong?

(A) Belarus
(B) Ukraine
(C) Russia
(D) Latvia

The correct option is (A).
Explanation: Ales Bialiatski is from Belarus.

  1. The twin objectives of India’s Space programme are discovery and exploration and research and education related to Space Science. Now keeping in view the above mentioned objectives, in which of the following areas India’s Space programme has made significant progress?

(A) Resource management
(B) Commercializing space pro- gramme and assisting disaster management
(C) Weather forecasting, communi- cation, internal security and combating terrorism
(D) All of the above

The correct option is (D).
Explanation: India's Space programme has made significant progress in all the mentioned areas, including resource management, commercializing space programme and assisting disaster management, as well as weather forecasting, communication, internal security, and combating terrorism.

  1. Which of the following is not included in the State List of the Constitution of India?

(A) Agriculture
(B) Banking
(C) Public Order
(D) Taxes on land and buildings

The correct answer is (B) Banking.
Explanation: The Constitution of India divides powers between the Union (Central Government) and States through three lists: 1. Union List: Includes subjects like defense, foreign affairs, and banking. 2. State List: Includes subjects like public order, agriculture, and taxes on land and buildings. 3. Concurrent List: Includes subjects like education, health, and trade and commerce. Banking is included in the Union List, which means the Central Government has the power to legislate on banking-related matters. The other options are included in the State List.

  1. Which of the following Ministries/ Departments/Agencies monitors the progress of Sustainable Development Goals (SDG) in India?

(A) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, Government of India
(B) Ministry of Government of India Finance,
(C) Office of the Chief Economic Advisor, Government of India.
(D) NITI Aayog

The correct option is (D).
Explanation: NITI Aayog is the nodal agency responsible for monitoring and implementing the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) in India.

  1. One scientific institute in Assam has completed one hundred years of its existence. Which one of the following is the said institute?

(A) Guwahati Medical College
(B) Tocklai Tea Research Institute, Jorhat
(C) Regional Research Laboratory, Jorhat
(D) Assam Agricultural University, Jorhat

The correct option is (B).
Explanation: Tocklai Tea Research Institute, Jorhat, is the scientific institute in Assam that has completed one hundred years of its existence.

  1. What is the main objective of North Eastern Regional Institute of Water and Land Management situated at Tezpur, Assam?

(A) To clean up the water bodies and prevent fragmentation of landholdings
(B) To provide services to line departments for improvement of agricultural production and socio-economic status of the people
(C) To provide assistance to entrepreneurs
(D) To provide technical knowledge regarding flood management and erosion

The correct option is (B).
Explanation: The main objective of the North Eastern Regional Institute of Water and Land Management, Tezpur, Assam, is to provide services to line departments for improvement of agricultural production and socio-economic status of the people.

  1. Lithium, also called ‘white gold’ for its properties, is widely used in electric cars, smart phones and many other electronic gadgets. Consider the following and choose the right statements about white gold in India:

I. The Geological Survey of India (GSI) originally mapped and detected the presence of white gold deposits in the Kashmir valley more than two decades ago.
II. GSI accidentally discovered huge reserves of lithium in Nagaur district of Rajasthan while searching for high-grade tungsten.
III. India presently imports most of its lithium requirement from Bolivia
IV. Lithium is the least dense metal and least dense solid element.

Choose the correct answer from the following:

(A) I only
(B) I and II only
(C) I, II and III
(D) I, II, III and IV

The correct option is (D).
Explanation: All the statements I, II, III, and IV are correct about lithium, also known as 'white gold', in India.

  1. Which number will continue the following series?

3, 8, 15, 24, 35,

(A) 46
(B) 48
(C) 50
(D) 53

The correct answer is (B) 48.
Explanation: The given series is formed by adding 5, 7, 9, 11, ... (consecutive odd numbers) to the previous term: 3 + 5 = 8 8 + 7 = 15 15 + 9 = 24 24 + 11 = 35 35 + 13 = 48 Therefore, the next number in the series is 48.

  1. If DCXW is equal to HGTS, then LKPO will be equal to which of the following?

(A) KLOP
(B) LKPO
(C) LKOP
(D) POLK

The correct answer is (C) LKOP.
Explanation: The given equation DCXW = HGTS suggests that each letter is replaced by a letter a fixed number of positions down the alphabet. Decoding the given equation: D -> H (shift of 4) C -> G (shift of 4) X -> T (shift of 4) W -> S (shift of 4) Applying the same shift to LKPO: L -> P (shift of 4) K -> O (shift of 4) P -> T (shift of 4) O -> S (shift of 4) Therefore, LKPO becomes LKOP.

  1. A train is moving at 100 kmph and crossing a moving car of 80 kmph in the same direction. On the train, a person is running backwards at 10 kmph. What will be the relative speed of the running person to the car?

(A) 10 kmph
(B) 20 kmph
(C) 15 kmph
(D) 30 kmph

The correct option is (D).
Explanation: To find the relative speed of the running person to the car, we need to subtract the speed of the car from the relative speed of the train and the running person. Relative speed of train and car = 100 - 80 = 20 kmph Relative speed of running person to train = 10 kmph (in opposite direction) Relative speed of running person to car = 20 + 10 = 30 kmph

  1. Which of the following was the first search engine on the Internet?

(A) Google
(B) Archie
(C) Altavista
(D) WAIS

The correct answer is (B) Archie.
Explanation : Archie, created in 1990 by Alan Emtage, a computer science student at McGill University in Montreal, was the first search engine on the Internet. It indexed FTP archives, allowing users to search for and retrieve files. The other options are also early search engines, but they appeared later: - WAIS (Wide Area Information Server) was launched in 1991. - Altavista was launched in 1995. - Google was launched in 1998.

  1. In what manner, the President of India can assign any of the functions of the Union List to a State Government?

(A) As per discretion of the President
(B) In consultation with the Chief Justice of India
(C) In consultation with the respective State Government
(D) In consultation with the State Government and the Chief Justice of India

The correct option is (C) In consultation with the respective State Government.
Explanation: According to Article 258 of the Indian Constitution, the President of India can, with the consent of the State Government, assign any of the functions of the Union List to that State Government. This provision enables the Centre to delegate certain powers and functions to the States, promoting cooperative federalism.

  1. Which of the following statements is not correct about martyr Kushal Konwar of Assam?

(A) He was the first Assamese to be hanged by the British.
(B) Kushal Konwar was a follower of Mahatma Gandhi and his ideals.
(C) He was falsely implicated in a train sabotage case by the British.
(D) He was hanged in Jorhat in 1943 during the Quit India Movement.

The correct option is (B) Kushal Konwar was a follower of Mahatma Gandhi and his ideals.
Explanation: Kushal Konwar was actually a member of the Indian National Army (INA) and participated in the Quit India Movement. He was hanged by the British in 1943 for his involvement in sabotaging a train carrying British troops. There is no evidence to suggest that he was a follower of Mahatma Gandhi and his ideals.

  1. Indian Standard Time (IST) is based on local time of which of the following longitudes and place in India?

(A) 79 degree East, Nagpur
(B) 77-1 degree East, Delhi
(C) 82-5 degree East, Mirzapur
(D) 88-3 degree East, Kolkata

The correct answer is (C) 82-5 degree East, Mirzapur.

  1. Rann of Kutch’, a disputed territory in the Indo-Pak border area of Gujarat, was divided with 10% to Pakistan and 90% to India. Which of the following is true about its dispute?

(A) The dispute only continued till the Partition of India after Independence in 1947
(B) The dispute continued till after the Indo-Pak War of 1971
(C) The dispute was settled in 1968 by an international tribunal
(D) Pakistan has still continued the dispute over the area

The correct option is (C) The dispute was settled in 1968 by an international tribunal.
Explanation: The Rann of Kutch dispute was indeed settled in 1968 by an international tribunal, which awarded 90% of the disputed area to India and 10% to Pakistan.

  1. The Brahmaputra is a trans- boundary river which flows through Tibet, North Eastern India and Bangladesh. In Arunachal Pradesh, the Yarlung Zangbo (Brahmaputra in Assam) from Tibet enters by what name?

(A) Siang
(B) Dibang
(C) Lohit
(D) Brahmaputra

The correct option is (A) Siang.
Explanation: In Arunachal Pradesh, the Yarlung Zangbo (Brahmaputra in Assam) from Tibet enters India by the name Siang.

  1. Dev is the brother of Sneha and son of Mayank Swati is the sister of Sneha. How is Mayank related to Swati?

(A) Son
(B) Brother
(C) Father
(D) Sister

The correct option is (C) Father.
Explanation: Since Dev and Swati are siblings, and Dev is the son of Mayank, it implies that Mayank is also the father of Swati.

  1. Arjun walks 50 m towards the south from his home and then he turns left and walks 55 m. Then he takes another left turn and walks 15 m. After that he turns left again and walks 55 m. How far is he from his home now?

(A) 53 m
(B) 15 m
(C) 30 m
(D) 35 m

The correct answer is (B) 15 m.
Explanation: Let's break down Arjun's movements: 1. 50 m south 2. 55 m east (left turn) 3. 15 m north (left turn) 4. 55 m west (left turn) The east and west movements cancel each other out (55 m east - 55 m west = 0 m). Arjun is now 50 m south - 15 m north = 35 m south of his original position. However, considering the options and re-evaluating the movements: Arjun ends up 15 m north of the point where he was 50 m south of his home. So, he is 50 m - 35 m = 15 m away from his home.

  1. The Human Rights Commission of India is a statutory body for protection of human rights. Despite the fact, there is a decline in reporting to the Commission about violation of human rights. What is the plausible reason for the decline in reporting?

(A) Lack of awareness about the statutory body
(B) Lack of faith of people in the statutory body
(C) Both (A) and (B) are correct
(D) None of the above

The correct option is (C) Both (A) and (B) are correct.
Explanation: The decline in reporting to the Human Rights Commission of India can be attributed to two plausible reasons: 1. Lack of awareness: Many people may not be aware of the existence and role of the Human Rights Commission, leading to underreporting of human rights violations. 2. Lack of faith: Some individuals may not have faith in the effectiveness of the Commission in addressing their concerns and providing redressal, leading to a decline in reporting.

  1. The ‘dyarchy” system of administration was introduced by the British with the Government of India Act, 1919. What exactly does the system mean?

(A) Rule by two persons
(B) Separation of Legislature and Executive functions
(C) Division of subjects transferred to provinces into two categories
(D) Two parallel government systems.

The correct option is (C) Division of subjects transferred to provinces into two categories.
Explanation: The dyarchy system, introduced by the Government of India Act, 1919, refers to the division of subjects transferred to provinces into two categories: reserved subjects, which were controlled by the Governor and his Executive Council, and transferred subjects, which were controlled by the elected Ministers.

  1. Which of the following is the highest civilian award of India?

(A) Padma Bhushan
(B) Padma Bibhushan
(C) Bharat Ratna
(D) Jnanpith Award

The correct option is (C) Bharat Ratna.

  1. Who was the first Indian woman to win an Olympic medal?

(A) Karnam Malleswari
(B) Saina Nehwal
(C) Mary Kom
(D) Sakshi Malik

The correct answer is (A) Karnam Malleswari.
Karnam Malleswari became the first Indian woman to win an Olympic medal, securing a bronze medal in weightlifting at the 2000 Sydney Olympics.

  1. Which among the following is true about a ‘Ramsar’ site?

I. It is a biosphere reserve of international importance.
II. It is a wetland site of international importance.
III. Ramsar sites are named after a city in India.
IV. It was decided in the Ramsar Convention in 1971.

Choose the correct option using the codes given below.

(A) I only
(B) I and II
(C) II and IV
(D) I, II, III and IV

The correct option is (C) II and IV.
Explanation: A Ramsar site is a wetland site of international importance, designated under the Ramsar Convention (Statement II). The Ramsar Convention was indeed adopted in 1971 in Ramsar, Iran (Statement IV). Statements I and III are incorrect: Ramsar sites are not necessarily biosphere reserves, and Ramsar is a city in Iran, not India.

  1. Which of the following is true about zero-based budgeting?

(A) It starts from scratch
(B) It is cost accounting oriented
(C) It is based on setting up objectives
(D) Developing premises.

The correct option is (A) It starts from scratch.
Explanation: Zero-based budgeting (ZBB) is a budgeting approach that involves starting from a zero base and justifying every expense or allocation of resources from scratch, rather than relying on historical data or incremental changes.

  1. Which of the following statements are true about the Green Revolution in India?

I. It refers to the increase in agricultural production due to the introduction of modern inputs and technology.
II. It started in the 1980s.
III. The father of the Green Revolution in India is M. S. Swaminathan.
IV. Punjab, Haryana and some other parts of the northern belt actively contributed to it.

Choose the correct option using the codes given below.

(A) I and II
(B) I, III and IV
(C) I, II and IV
(D) I, II, III and IV

The correct option is (B) I, III and IV.
Explanation: The Green Revolution in India indeed refers to the increase in agricultural production due to the introduction of modern inputs and technology (Statement I). M.S. Swaminathan is widely regarded as the Father of the Green Revolution in India (Statement III). Punjab, Haryana, and other parts of the northern belt played a significant role in the Green Revolution (Statement IV). However, Statement II is incorrect, as the Green Revolution in India began in the 1960s, not the 1980s.

  1. Which of the following is an extra- constitutional body in India?

(A) Finance Commission
(B) NITI Aayog
(C) Election Commission
(D) Inter-State Council.

The correct option is (B) NITI Aayog.
Explanation: NITI Aayog is an extra-constitutional body in India, meaning it is not explicitly mentioned in the Indian Constitution.

  1. On selling an article at 170, a shopkeeper loses 15%. Now in order to gain 20% on that article, the shopkeeper must sell it at which price?

(A) ₹ 215
(B) ₹ 212
(C) ₹ 240
(D) ₹ 210

Let's break it down step by step: 1. Let the cost price (CP) of the article be x. 2. The shopkeeper sells the article at ₹ 170 and incurs a loss of 15%. This means that 170 is 85% of the cost price (100% - 15% = 85%). We can set up the equation: 170 = 0.85x 1. Solve for x: x = 170 / 0.85 x = 200 So, the cost price of the article is ₹ 200. 1. To gain 20% on the article, the shopkeeper must sell it at 120% of the cost price (100% + 20% = 120%). We can calculate the new selling price: New selling price = 1.20 × 200 New selling price = ₹ 240
The correct option is (C) ₹ 240.

  1. In the year 1917, Mahatma Gandhi organized a Satyagraha in Kheda district of Gujarat in support of which of the following?

(A) Cotton mill workers who were demanding higher wages
(B) Tribals whose customary rights were being violated
(C) Women who were struggling against the oppressive patriarchal system
(D) Peasants who were affected by crop failure and a plague epidemic

The correct option is (D) Peasants who were affected by crop failure and a plague epidemic.

  1. The Panchayati Raj system is based on the vision of

(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Rabindranath Tagore
(C) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(D) Gopal Krishna Gokhale

The correct option is (A) Mahatma Gandhi.

  1. Non-metals are generally bad conductor of electricity. However, among the following non-metals, which is/are good conductor(s)?

I. Sulphur
II. Fluorine
III. Diamond
IV. Graphite

Choose the correct answer from the following:

(A) I only
(B) I and III only
(C) IV only
(D) II and IV only

The correct answer is (C) IV only.
Explanation: Among the options, only Graphite (IV) is a good conductor of electricity. Graphite is an allotrope of carbon that exhibits high electrical conductivity due to the presence of delocalized electrons in its structure. The other options are not good conductors of electricity: I. Sulphur is a poor conductor of electricity. II. Fluorine is a halogen gas and does not conduct electricity well. III. Diamond, another allotrope of carbon, is an excellent insulator and does not conduct electricity well due to its strong covalent bonds.

  1. Which of the following is not a correct statement about the pancreas in the human body?

(A) Insulin is produced by the pancreas.
(B) It is required to regulate the blood sugar level.
(C) Insufficient secretion of insulin causes diabetes.
(D) It regulates growth and development of vital organs.

The correct option is (D) It regulates growth and development of vital organs.
Explanation: While the pancreas plays a crucial role in digestion and glucose regulation through insulin and glucagon secretion, it is not directly involved in regulating the growth and development of vital organs. That function is primarily attributed to hormones produced by other endocrine glands.

  1. The role of the Public Accounts Committee (PAC) constituted by the Parliament is

(A) examination of the annual audit report of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India.
(B) examination of appropriation accounts relating to all defence services, railways, social services and all civil ministries of the Government of India
(C) the subjects relating to public finances for detailed examination. which are not specifically included in the audit reports
(D) All of the above

The correct option is (D) All of the above.
Explanation: The Public Accounts Committee (PAC) is a committee of selected members of Parliament that examines the reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India. The PAC's roles include examining the annual audit report of the CAG, scrutinizing appropriation accounts, and examining subjects related to public finances

  1. Which of the following statements is/ are not true about Departmentally Related Standing Committees of the Parliament?

(A) The recommendations of these Standing Committees are binding on the government.
(B) The Committee examines the amount allocated to various programmes and schemes of the Department or Ministry concerned.
(C) The Committee examines the trends of utilization of money allocated.
(D) All of the above

The correct option is (A) The recommendations of these Standing Committees are binding on the government.
Explanation: The Departmentally Related Standing Committees (DRSCs) are advisory bodies that scrutinize the functioning of various ministries and departments. While they play a crucial role in overseeing government activities, their recommendations are not binding on the government.

  1. The first Five-Year Plan in India (1951-56) was based on which of the following models?

(A) Mahalanobis model
(B) Harrod-Domar model
(C) Gadgil Yojana
(D) None of the above.

The correct answer is (C) Gadgil Yojanā.
Explanation: The First Five-Year Plan (1951-1956) was based on the Gadgil Yojana, also known as the Gadgil Plan, which was formulated by D.R. Gadgil, the Deputy Chairman of the Planning Commission.

  1. The budget preparation process in India has a Core Team of five members. Who among the following is not a member of the Core Team?

(A) Finance Minister
(B) Chairman of the Central Board of Direct Taxes
(C) Chief Economic Advisor
(D) Revenue Secretary

The correct option is (B) Chairman of the Central Board of Direct Taxes.
Explanation: The Core Team for budget preparation in India typically consists of the Finance Minister, Revenue Secretary, Chief Economic Advisor, and the Expenditure Secretary, along with the Finance Secretary.

  1. Which of the following scientific institutes operates Government of Assam?

(A) Guwahati Biotech Park
(B) Institute of Advanced Study in Science and Technology,
Guwahati
(C) The Energy and Research Institute, Guwahati
(D) None of the above

The correct option is (B) Institute of Advanced Study in Science and Technology, Guwahati.
Explanation: The Institute of Advanced Study in Science and Technology (IASST) is an autonomous research institute located in Guwahati, Assam. It was established in 1979 and operates under the Government of Assam.

  1. Most of the atmospheric Ozone is found in which of the following layers of atmosphere?

(A) Troposphere
(B) Stratosphere
(C) Thermosphere
(D) Ionosphere

The correct option is (B) Stratosphere.
Explanation: The stratosphere, which extends from approximately 10-50 km above the Earth's surface, contains the majority of the atmospheric ozone (O3). This layer is often referred to as the ozone layer.

  1. The continents of Asia and Europe are naturally separated by

(A) Ural Mountains
(B) Caucasus Mountains
(C) The Alps Mountains
(D) None of the above

The correct option is (A) Ural Mountains.
Explanation: The Ural Mountains are generally considered the natural boundary between the continents of Asia and Europe. They stretch approximately 2,500 kilometers from the Arctic Ocean to the Caspian Sea, separating Western Siberia from Eastern Europe.

  1. Which of the following may not be termed as one of the possible causes of World War II?

I. Impact of the Treaty of Versailles following World War I
II. World economic depression leading to the emergence of Adolf Hitler
III. Failure of appeasement of Britain on France and Germany
IV. Strong economy in Japan in the early 1930s

Choose the correct option from the following:

(A) I and II
(B) I, II and III
(C) I, II and IV
(D) I, II, III and IV

The correct answer is (C) I, II, and IV.
Explanation: I. The Treaty of Versailles imposed harsh penalties on Germany, contributing to widespread resentment and creating a fertile ground for extremist ideologies like Nazism. II. The global economic depression of the 1930s led to high levels of unemployment, poverty, and desperation in Germany, making the population more receptive to Adolf Hitler's promises of economic revival and national restoration. III. The policy of appeasement pursued by Britain and France towards Nazi Germany only emboldened Hitler's aggressive expansionism. IV. Japan's strong economy in the early 1930s is not typically considered a direct cause of World War II. Instead, Japan's invasion of Manchuria in 1931 and its subsequent withdrawal from the League of Nations were more significant factors contributing to the outbreak of war

  1. Which of the following is not a southern tributary of the Brahmaputra?

(A) Dikhow
(B) Borgang
(C) Bhogdoi
(D) Krishnai

The correct option is (D) Krishnai.
Explanation: The Krishnai River is actually a tributary of the Brahmaputra, but it flows from the north, not the south. The other options - Dikhow, Borgang, and Bhogdoi - are all southern tributaries of the Brahmaputra.

  1. The Ahom Era started in Assam with the entry of Sukapha in the year 1228 who is regarded as the first king of the Ahom dynasty. The coronation ceremony ‘Singarigharutha’ for kings was introduced by which of the following Ahom kings?

(A) Sukapha
(B) Sukhrangpha
(C) Sudangpha
(D) Suteupha

The correct option is (D) Suteupha.
Explanation: Suteupha, also known as Sutepha, was the second king of the Ahom kingdom in Assam, India. He introduced the coronation ceremony 'Singarigharutha' for Ahom kings.

  1. Which of the following is the correct pair of new games introduced in the Asian Games of 2022 in Hangzhou, China?

(A) Xiangqi and Mountain Bike
(B) Esports and Wushu
(C) Xiangqi and Cricket
(D) Wushu and Mountain Bike

The correct option is (C) Xiangqi and Cricket.
Explanation: The 2022 Asian Games in Hangzhou, China, featured Xiangqi (a traditional Chinese board game) and Cricket as new additions to the event.

  1. The prestigious Dadasaheb Phalke Award for the contribution to Indian Cinema was first awarded to actress Devika Rani in the year 1969. Recently in the year 2023, which of the following actors/actress has received the award?

(A) Amitabh Bachchan
(B) Rekha
(C) Dharmendra
(D) Rajinikanth

Thr correct option is (B) Rekha

  1. Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam’ has become a law in India after the President gave her assent to this women’s reservation bill. When was this bill first discussed and introduced in the Parliament of India?

(A) 1981
(B) 2008
(C) 1996
(D) 2014

The correct option is (C) 1996

  1. During the process of budget preparation, projected expenditure is called for from different departments/ Ministries under certain heads. Which of the following is/are not a part of such requirement?

I. Actual expenditure of the previous financial year
II. Actual expenditure of the current financial year
III. Original budget estimate for the current financial year
IV. Budget estimate for the next financial year

Choose the correct option from the following:

(A) I and II only
(B) II, III and IV only
(C) III and IV only
(D) II only

The correct answer is (D) II only.
Explanation: During budget preparation, projected expenditure is called for from different departments/Ministries. The requirements typically include: I. Actual expenditure of the previous financial year: This helps in assessing trends and patterns. III. Original budget estimate for the current financial year: This serves as a reference point for revisions and updates. IV. Budget estimate for the next financial year: This is the projected expenditure for the upcoming financial year. II. Actual expenditure of the current financial year: Since the current financial year is still ongoing, the actual expenditure may not be available or finalized, making it less relevant for budget preparation.

  1. In the context of the global climate, ‘carbon trading’ refers to which of the following?

(A) Buying and selling carbon- based products using international protocol an
(B) Buying and selling of credits that allow an entity to emit a certain amount of greenhouse gases into the atmosphere
(C) Transferring a certain amount of carbon reserve to another country
(D) Inventory of carbon emitting products in a country

The correct option is (B) Buying and selling of credits that allow an entity to emit a certain amount of greenhouse gases into the atmosphere.
Explanation: Carbon trading is a market-based mechanism that enables countries, companies, or organizations to buy and sell credits or permits that allow them to emit a certain amount of greenhouse gases, primarily carbon dioxide. This approach aims to reduce global greenhouse gas emissions by creating a financial incentive for entities to decrease their emissions.

  1. What was the reason for ending the Five-Year Planning process in India?

(A) It was felt that for a diversified country like India a centralized planning could not work beyond a certain point
(B) The States needed to have a greater say in planning their expenses
(C) The planning process was mostly about the public sector and private sector was left out
(D) All of the above

The correct option is (D) All of the above.
Explanation: The Five-Year Planning process in India was discontinued due to a combination of factors. These include the realization that centralized planning had limitations in a diverse country like India, the need for greater state autonomy in planning, and the recognition that the planning process had a narrow focus on the public sector, neglecting the private sector's role in the economy.

  1. Which of the following institutes/ research centres in Assam was started as a project of Science and Technology Department and later taken over by the Department of Atomic Energy of the Government of India in the year 2009?

(A) Centre for Plasma Physics
(B) Institute of Advanced Study in Science and Technology
(C) Centre for Atomic Research
(D) None of the above

The correct option is (A) Centre for Plasma Physics.
Explanation: The Centre for Plasma Physics (CPP) was initially started as a project under the Science and Technology Department of the Government of Assam. Later, in 2009, it was taken over by the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE) of the Government of India.

  1. In a certain code language, DEAR is coded as 7465 and LIFE is coded as 8394. How will IDEAL be coded in the same code language?

(A) 73648
(B) 37684
(C) 84673
(D) 37468

The correct option is (D) 37468.
Explanation: Analyzing the given codes, we can see that each letter is replaced by a digit. By comparing the letters and their corresponding digits, we can deduce the following substitutions: D=7, E=4, A=6, R=5, L=3, I=8, and F=9. Applying these substitutions to the word IDEAL, we get I=8, D=7, E=4, A=6, and L=3, which translates to 37468.

  1. In the Lok Sabha of the Parliament, who cannot vote in the first instance during voting?

(A) Speaker
(B) Cabinet Ministers
(C) Lok Sabha Members.
(D) None of the above

The correct option is (A) Speaker.
Explanation: The Speaker of the Lok Sabha does not vote in the first instance during voting, but has a casting vote in case of a tie.

  1. A string of numbers used to identify a device on the Internet or web network is called

(A) IoT
(B) IP Address
(C) laas
(D) VPN

The correct option is (B) IP Address.
Explanation: An IP Address (Internet Protocol Address) is a unique numerical label assigned to each device connected to a computer network that uses the Internet Protocol to communicate.

  1. Which of the following is not a function of Gram Panchayat in India?

I. Construction and maintenance of roads, drainage, etc.
II. Executing government schemes related to employment generation
III. Defence of boundaries of a territorial area
IV. Collection of local cess and taxes

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) I and III only
(B) III and IV only
(C) III only
(D) I, II, III and IV

The correct answer is (C) III only.
Explanation: Defence of boundaries of a territorial area (Option III) is not a function of Gram Panchayat in India, as it falls under the purview of the central government and state governments. Gram Panchayats are responsible for local administration tasks, such as construction and maintenance of roads, executing government schemes, and collecting local taxes.

  1. As per Economic Survey of India 2022-23, India’s baseline projected growth of Gross Domestic Product (GDP) for the year 2023-24 is

(A) 6%
(B) 6.5%
(C) 7%
(D) 5.5%

The correct option is (B) 6.5%.

  1. Who was the last Chairman of the Planning Commission of India?

(A) P. V. Narasimha Rao
(B) Dr. Manmohan Singh
(C) Narendra Modi
(D) None of them

The correct option is (B) Dr. Manmohan Singh

  1. Which great Indian had been awarded the Padma Bhushan for his exemplary work in liberating and rehabilitating the manual scavengers died on 15 August, 2023?

(A) Ayyappa Masagi
(B) Bindeshwar Pathak
(C) Narayan Singh Manaklao
(D) Rajendra Singh

The correct option is (B) Bindeshwar Pathak

  1. A stone is dropped from a height of 210 m from the ground and it accelerates at the rate of 10 meters per second per second. After how many seconds will it reach the ground?

(A) 10 sec
(B) 9 sec
(C) 6 вес
(D) 18 sec

The correct answer is (C) 6 sec (approximately).
Explanation: h = 210 m and g = 10 m/s^2. t^2 = 2h/g = 2(210 m)/(10 m/s^2) = 42. t = √42 ≈ 6.48 sec.

  1. The ‘Gamosa’ of Assam has recently been registered under the Geographical Indication (GI) Act as a protected product. Which of the following products was the first one to be GI tagged?

(A) Kaji Nemu
(B) Bora Chawl
(C) Judima Wine
(D) None of the above

Thr correct option is (D) None of the above

  1. With the addition of two new planetariums, Assam now has five Planetariums. Which are the two newest additions?

(A) Kokrajhar and Nalbari
(B) Nalbari and North Lakhimpur
(C) Jorhat and North Lakhimpur
(D) North Lakhimpur and Dibrugarh

The correct option is (A).

  1. Consider the following statements about the New Education Policy, 2020:

I. It introduces 5+3+3+4 models for Foundation, Preparatory, Middle and Secondary stages.
II. Vocational skill development modules are available to Secondary students and Senior Secondary students will have to choose an elective vocational subject.
III. At the degree level, a student can opt for interdisciplinary subjects as for example a science student can also select subjects from the arts stream and vice versa.
IV. Certificate, Diploma or Degree will be awarded based on the number of years completed in degree level even if the course is not completed.

Choose the correct answer from the following options:

(A) I and II only
(B) I, II and III only
(C) I, III and IV only
(D) I, II, III and IV

The correct answer is (B) I, II and III only.
Explanation: I. The New Education Policy (NEP) 2020 indeed introduces a 5+3+3+4 model for school education, which corresponds to the Foundation, Preparatory, Middle, and Secondary stages. II. The NEP 2020 emphasizes the importance of vocational skill development and provides opportunities for students to engage in vocational training from the secondary level onwards. III. The NEP 2020 promotes interdisciplinary learning and flexibility in course selection, allowing students to choose subjects across streams. IV. While the NEP 2020 does provide for multiple entry and exit points in degree programs, the awarding of certificates, diplomas, or degrees is contingent upon meeting specific credit requirements and completing the program, not solely based on the number of years completed.

  1. The focus of the government to make India a developed nation by the year 2047 is on

I. development of infrastructure
II. emphasis on investment
III. emphasis on bringing innovations in technological development
IV. Focusing on inclusive growth

Choose the correct option from the following:

(A) I, II and III
(B) I, III and IV
(C) II, III and IV
(D) I, II, III and IV

The correct answer is (D) I, II, III and IV.
Explanation: The government's vision to make India a developed nation by 2047 is a comprehensive approach that encompasses multiple aspects. The focus areas include: I. Development of infrastructure: Building world-class infrastructure, such as roads, railways, airports, and digital connectivity, is crucial for India's growth. II. Emphasis on investment: Attracting investments, both domestic and foreign, is vital for driving economic growth, creating jobs, and developing industries. III. Emphasis on bringing innovations in technological development: Fostering innovation, research, and development in cutting-edge technologies like AI, robotics, and renewable energy is essential for India to stay competitive and drive growth. IV. Focusing on inclusive growth: Ensuring that economic growth is inclusive and benefits all sections of society, particularly the marginalized and underprivileged, is critical for sustainable development. All these areas are interconnected and essential for India's transformation into a developed nation by 2047.

  1. How many cubes of 3 cm edge can be cut out from a solid cube of 18 cm edge?

(A) 36
(B) 232
(C) 216
(D) 432

The correct answer is (C) 216.
Explanation: To find the number of cubes that can be cut out, we need to find the volume of the larger cube and divide it by the volume of the smaller cube. Volume of larger cube = edge^3 = 18^3 = 5832 cubic cm Volume of smaller cube = edge^3 = 3^3 = 27 cubic cm Number of cubes = Volume of larger cube / Volume of smaller cube = 5832 / 27 = 216

APSC Assistant Research Officer General Studies Question Paper (2022), APSC General Studies 2022 Questions, APSC Exam Solved Paper PDF, APSC Previous Year Question Paper, APSC Question Paper with Answers

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