APSC CCE GS 1998 Question Paper With Answers

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APSC CCE General Studies 1998 Question Paper With Solutions

Go through the question paper of APSC General Studies with solutions. Solving previous years’ question papers will help you get a very good idea of how the questions are asked in the General Studies paper. We have hidden the answers so that you can solve it yourself first before reading the actual answer. Good luck.

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

Code No.: CCT.2-IX-IX-1 Roll No.

Serial No.

1998

TEST BOOKLET

GENERAL STUDIES

Time Allowed: 2 (Two) Hours Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. The Roll Number Shall be written legibly and correctly in the space provided for the purpose at the top right hand corner of this Test Booklet.
  2. No Roll Number or name or anything else except the actual Answers to the Question, shall be written, anywhere inside the Test Booklet.
  3. All items carry equal marks. Attempt all items. Your total marks will depend only on the number of correct responses marked by you in the Answer Sheet provided for this purpose.
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  9. Violation of any of the above Rules will render the candidate liable to expulsion from the Examination Hall/Room and disqualification from the Examination, and according to the nature and gravity of his /her offence he/she may be debarred from future Examination and Interviews conducted by the Commission for appointment to Government Service.
  10. Smoking inside the Examination Hall/Room is strictly prohibited.

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

No. of Questions: 100

  1. Who among the following person was awarded Nobel Prize for Literature in 1998?

(a) Walter kohn
(b) Jose Saramago
(c) David Trimble
(d) Daniel C. Sui

Option (b) Jose Saramago
Explanation: Jose Saramago, a Portuguese author, was awarded the Nobel Prize for Literature in 1998 for his body of work characterized by imaginative and philosophical depth.

  1. On August 16, 1998 last the U. S. A. struck Afghanistan with their Tamahawk cruise missiles. Their target was-

(A) Taliban militia
(b) Osama Bin Laden
(c) Communist militia
(d) Iranian build-up along the Afghan Iran border.

Option(b) Osama Bin Laden
Explanation: The U.S. targeted Osama Bin Laden due to his involvement in terrorism and the bombing of U.S. embassies in Africa.

  1. Which one of the following about the lokpal Bill is not correct?

(a) It was introduced in the Lok Sabha by the Prime Minister in November, 1998.
(b) It seeks to bring under the purview of thePrevention of Corruption Act the Union Cabinet Ministers including the Prime Minister.
(c) The Bill ahs 32 clauses.
(d) A committee headed by the Vice President would recommend the name of a person for appointment as lokpal chairperson by the President of India.

Option (c) The Bill has 32 clauses.
Explanation: The Lokpal Bill initially had more than 32 clauses, and this statement is incorrect as it misrepresents the actual number of clauses.

  1. NATO was expanded on May 22, 1998, by admitting-

(a) Hungary, Czech and Slovak Republics.
(b) Turkey, Hungary and Czech Republics.
(c) Turkey, Serbia and Slovak Republics.
(d) Hungary, Poland and Czech Republics.

Option(d) Hungary, Poland and Czech Republics.
Explanation: NATO expanded in 1999, admitting these three countries, which was a significant move post-Cold War.

  1. Which one of the following statemanets is not correct about the International Space Station?

(a) It came into reality in December, 1998.
(b) The Russian-built Zarya Module and the USA-built Unity module fitted together for the first time.
(c) It revolves round the earth at a height of about 1000 km.
(d) The Project seeks to join more thin 100space station components

Option (c) It revolves round the earth at a height of about 1000 km.
Explanation: The International Space Station orbits Earth at an altitude of approximately 400 km, making this statement incorrect.

  1. The number of medals begged by Jyotirmayee Sikdar in the 13th Asiad held at Bangkok is-

(a) One gold and one silver
(b) One gold and two silver
(c) Two gold and one silver
(d) Two gold and two silver

Option(c) Two gold and one silver
Explanation: Jyotirmayee Sikdar won two gold and one silver medal in athletics during the 13th Asian Games.

  1. The new Exim policy announced by the Commerce Ministry of India in April 1998 seeks an ambitious export growth of 20%. Which one is not of the sailent features of the said policy?

(a) Speedy issue of advanced licensing,
(b) Relaxation of bank guarantee norms
(c) Non relaxation of import curbs on listed items.
(d) Setting up of Anti-Dumping Directorate.

Option (c) Non-relaxation of import curbs on listed items.
Explanation: The policy aimed to facilitate easier imports to boost exports, so this statement is not a salient feature of the policy.

  1. Malpa was in the news in August, 1998. because

(a) Uranium was discovered here.
(b) A devastating earthquake destroyed many village around it.
(c) A devasting flood destroyed the village completely killing about 200 people.
(d) Heavy landslides killed more than 200 persons including some pilgrims.

Option (d) Heavy landslides killed more than 200 persons including some pilgrims.
Explanation: Malpa was hit by devastating landslides that caused significant casualties.

  1. Before Pokhran II phase of 5 nuclear tests by India on 11 May 1998 and there after, the N- tests conducted by P 5 (the permanent members of the UN Security Council) totalled.

(a) Over 1000
(b) Over 2000
(c) Under 700
(d) Under 500

Option(c) Under 700
Explanation: The five permanent members had conducted fewer than 700 nuclear tests collectively before this period.

  1. The Euro seems to have thrown down e challenge to:

(a) The US dollar
(b) The Singapore dollar
(c) The Hong kong dollar
(d) The Australian dollar

Option (a) The US dollar
Explanation: The Euro was established as a major currency in competition with the US dollar in international markets.

  1. Which word leader commented as follows on Us-British air strikes in Iraq (‘Operation Desert Fox’): “This is a sad day for the UN and for the world?

(a) Nelson Mandela
(b) Boris Yelstin
(c) Jiang Zemin
(d) Kofi Annan

Option (d) Kofi Annan
Explanation: Kofi Annan, as UN Secretary-General, expressed concern about the implications of the airstrikes for international relations and the UN's authority.

  1. Which former Soviet Republic is moving towards ‘voluntary unification’ with Russsia even while retaining its national sovereignty?

(a) Belarus
(b) Ukraine
(c) Kazakhstan
(d) Uzbekistan

Option (a) Belarus
Explanation: Belarus has been pursuing closer ties with Russia, including discussions about unification while maintaining its sovereignty.

  1. The UNIVERSAL DECLARATION OF HUMAN RIGHTS as adopted and proclaimed by the UN Genaral Assembly on:

(a) 10 December 1948
(b) 10 December 1945
(c) 10 December 1955
(d) 1 January 1946

Option (a) 10 December 1948
Explanation: The Universal Declaration of Human Rights was adopted by the UN General Assembly on December 10, 1948.

  1. The Olympics 2004 is to be held in-

(a) Capetown
(b) Tokyo
(c) Rome
(d) Sydney

Option (a) Capetown
Explanation: This statement is incorrect; the 2004 Olympics were held in Athens, Greece.

  1. Hong Kong came back into China’s fold after-

(a) 150 year
(b) 156 year
(c) 120 year
(d) 100 year

Option (b) 156 years
Explanation: Hong Kong was handed back to China from British rule after 156 years in 1997

  1. The latest regional economic bloc to be formed is-

(a) ASEAN
(b) COMECON
(c) APEC
(d) NAFTA

Option(a) ASEAN
Explanation: ASEAN (Association of Southeast Asian Nations) was established as a regional bloc in 1967, but it is often considered in the context of current developments within regional blocs. Bishop Carlos Felipe, Ximenes Belo and Jose Ramos-Hort

  1. Bishop Carlos Felipe, Ximenes Belo and Jose Romos-Horta shared the Nobel Peace Prize in-

(a) 1992
(b) 1994
(c) 1996.
(d) 1997

Option (b) 1996
Explanation: They received the Nobel Peace Prize in 1996 for their efforts in promoting peace in East Timor.

  1. To prevent the spreading of social cancer i.e. corruption CBI has been entrusted with the task of exposing the truth. In which year CBI Institution was formed?

(a) 1995
(b) 1985
(c) 1963
(d) 1970

Option (c) 1963
Explanation: The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) was established in India in 1963.

  1. Recently four Indian scientist met unnatural death in a place of Antarctica. The place is meant for research and experimental purpose. It is-

(a) Indira Point
(b) Lake Priyadarshini
(c) Panganga
(d) Dakshin Gongotri

Option(d) Dakshin Gongotri
Explanation: Dakshin Gongotri is an Indian research station in Antarctica where this incident occurred.

  1. Which one of the following regions of Asia in experiencing the highest growth rate of population?

(a) South Asia
(b) South-East Asia
(c) Central Asia
(d) West Asia

Option (a) South Asia
Explanation: South Asia, particularly countries like India and Bangladesh, is known for having a high population growth rate.

  1. The most important condition laid down by India for signing the CTBT has been stated as:

(a) India should be recognised as nuclear Power
(b) India should be admitted as a permanent member of the U.N. Security Council.
(c) India should be free to develop capacity for a minimum nuclear daterrance in the interests of her own national security.
(d) Pakistan should be declared a terrorist State.

Option(c) India should be free to develop the capacity for a minimum nuclear deterrence in the interests of her own national security.
Explanation: India emphasizes maintaining its sovereignty and security in discussions about nuclear agreements.

  1. In a recent written document to the Security Council, Secretary General Koffi Annan has recommended ‘technical liquidation’ of the U.N. Peace Keeping Mission form:

(a) Lebanon
(b) Angola
(c) Cyprus
(d) El Salvador

Option(b) Angola
Explanation: Kofi Annan suggested reducing peacekeeping efforts in Angola as the situation stabilized.

  1. The International year of the Ocean is-

(a) 1996
(b) 1997
(c) 1998
(d) 1999

Option(c) 1998
Explanation: The United Nations designated 1998 as the International Year of the Ocean to raise awareness about ocean conservati

  1. India was represented in the G-15 Summit in Cairo by-

(a) Pime Minister A.B. Bajpayee
(b) Vice President Krishnakant
(c) Home Minister L.K. Advani
(d) Lok Sabha speaker G. Mc. Balayogi

Option (a) Prime Minister A.B. Vajpayee
Explanation: A.B. Vajpayee represented India at the G-15 Summit in Cairo.

  1. The 1998 Pulitzer Prize was bagged by-

(a) New York Times
(b) Grand Fork
(c) Los Angles Time
(d) National Herald

Option (a) New York Times
Explanation: The New York Times received the Pulitzer Prize for its reporting and journalism in various categories.

  1. The 16th World Football Tournament was inagurated by the French President-

(a) Mitterend
(b) Clemencheu
(c) Jacques Chirac
(d) Talleyrand

Option (c) Jacques Chirac
Explanation: Jacques Chirac was the President of France who inaugurated the tournament.

  1. In the 12th Lok Sabha election the number of seats bagged by Rashtriya Janata Dal was-

(a) 12
(b) 15
(c) 17
(d) 19

Option (c) 17
Explanation: Rashtriya Janata Dal won 17 seats in the 12th Lok Sabha elections.

  1. The author of the book ‘INDIA: 2020’ is-

(a) APJ Abdul Kalam
(b) Arun Shourie
(c) Arundhati Roy
(d) Vikram Seth

Option (a) APJ Abdul Kalam
Explanation: APJ Abdul Kalam authored 'INDIA: 2020,' outlining his vision for India's future.

  1. One monthly Magazine published in Assam still costs 25 paise per issue. Its name is-

(a) ALOK
(b) ASOMA
(c) Prantik
(d) Yugasangkha

Option (c) Prantik
Explanation: Prantik is a notable Assamese magazine that maintained this price for its issues.

  1. Srimanta Shankardev Kalakhetra is built as-

(a) a cultural achievement of the State Government.
(b) a cultural achievement of the Central Government.
(c) a consequence ence of ‘Assam Accord’.
(d) a work based on voluntary contributions of the people of Assam.

Option (d) a work based on voluntary contributions of the people of Assam.
Explanation: The Kalakhetra was established through contributions from the Assamese community to celebrate their cultural heritage.

  1. The film ‘Elizabeth’ is directed by-

(a) Scarlet Pimpernel
(b) Piyush Jha
(c) Deepa Mehta
(d) Sekhar Kapoor

Option(d) Sekhar Kapoor
Explanation: Sekhar Kapur directed the film 'Elizabeth,' which portrays the early years of Queen Elizabeth I's reign.

  1. The dockyard of Indus Civilisation is found at-

(a) Lothal
(b) Kalibanga
(c) Ropar
(d) Rangpur

Option (a) Lothal
Explanation: Lothal is known for its dockyard, which is one of the earliest in the world and a significant feature of the Indus Valley Civilization.

  1. The animal inknown to the Indus Civilisation was-

(a) cow
(b) bull
(c) elephant
(d) horse

Option(d) horse
Explanation: The horse is recognized as an important animal in the Indus Valley Civilization, although some debate exists regarding its presence.

  1. The ultimate source of the law, according to the Vedic thinkers is the-

(a) Monarch
(b) People
(c) Council of Ministers
(d) Dharma

Option(d) Dharma
Explanation: In Vedic thought, Dharma is considered the ultimate principle that governs law and morality.

  1. Dipavamsa is written in-

(a) Sanskrit
(b) Pali
(c) Hindi.
(d) None of these

Option (b) Pali
Explanation: Dipavamsa is an ancient text written in Pali that chronicles the history of Buddhism in Sri Lanka.

  1. The Empire of Chandragupta Maurya did not include-

(a) Magadha
(b) Punjab
(c) Kabul
(d) Kalinga

Option(d) Kalinga
Explanation: Kalinga was not part of the Mauryan Empire during Chandragupta's reign.

  1. The normal form of Government during the Rig Vedic age was-

(a) Hereditaty monarchy
(b) Direct democracy
(c) Oligarchy
(d) Merchant’s Guild

Option (a) Hereditary monarchy
Explanation: The Rig Vedic period is characterized by a form of governance that was largely hereditary, often in the form of kingship.

  1. Ashoka did not ask for-

(a) reverence to all ascetics
(b) respect to parents
(c) to refrain from violence
(d) devotion to Buddhist sangha

Option(d) devotion to Buddhist sangha
Explanation: While Ashoka promoted Buddhism, his edicts did not specifically demand devotion to the Buddhist community (sangha).

  1. The capital of Kaniska was-

(a) Sakal
(b) Jalandhar
(c) Purushapura
(d) Kaniskapura.

Option(c) Purushapura
Explanation: Purushapura, known today as Peshawar, was the capital of Kaniska's empire.

  1. Harshavardhan was defeated by a king of the-

(a) Sungas
(b) Maukheris
(c) Satvahanas
(d) Chalukyas

Option (d) Chalukyas
Explanation: Harshavardhan was ultimately defeated by Pulakeshin II of the Chalukya dynasty.

  1. The Mughal Emperor who granted Dewani to the East India Company was-

(a) Bahadur Shah-I
(b) Shah Alam I
(c) Shah Alam II
(d) Bahadur Shah II

Option (c) Shah Alam II
Explanation: Shah Alam II granted the rights of Dewani to the East India Company in 1765.

42, In Bihar the Revolt of 1857 was led by-

(a) Nana Saheb
(b) Tantia Tope
(c) Khan Bahadur Khan
(d) Kunwar Singh

Option (d) Kunwar Singh
Explanation: Kunwar Singh was a prominent leader of the Revolt of 1857 in Bihar.

  1. The Durand Line demarcates the borderline between India and-

(a) Nepal
(b) Bhutan
(c) Afghanistan
(d) China

Option (c) Afghanistan
Explanation: The Durand Line is the boundary between India (now Pakistan) and Afghanistan.

  1. Who said, “minority can not be allowed to vetothe political progress of the majority”?

(a) Attle
(b) A. V. Alexander
(c) Cripps
(d) President Wilson

Option(b) A. V. Alexander
Explanation: A. V. Alexander made this statement during the discussions about Indian constitutional reforms.

  1. Saugali Treaty was concluded between the British and-

(a) Gorkhas
(b) Afghans
(c) Pindaris
(d) Marathas

Option (a) Gorkhas
Explanation: The Saugali Treaty was signed between the British and the Gorkhas after the Anglo-Nepalese War.

  1. Who was not a member of the Cabinet Mission-

(a) Lord Pettick Lowrence
(b) Sir Staford Cripps
(c) A..V. Alexander
(d) Lord Wavell

Option(a) Lord Pettick Lowrence
Explanation: Lord Pethick-Lawrence was not a member of the Cabinet Mission that came to India in 1946.

  1. Who was not a martyr of the Quit India Movement-

(a) Kanaklata
(b) Bhogeswari Phukanani
(c) Kushal Konwar
(d) Manirarn Dewan

Option (d) Maniram Dewan
Explanation: While Maniram Dewan was a notable figure in Indian history, he was not directly associated with the Quit India Movement as a martyr.

  1. The ‘Young Bengal’ was formed by-

(a) Louise Vivian Direjio
(b) Annie Besant
(c) Subhashchandra Bose
(d) Surendranath Banerjee

Option (a) Louise Vivian Derozio
Explanation: Louise Vivian Derozio was the leader of the Young Bengal movement.

  1. Who did not belong the ‘Jonaki Yug’?

(a) Lakshminath Bezbaruah
(b) Chandrakumar Agarwalla
(c) Hemchandra Goswami
(d) Nidhiram Farwell

Option (d) Nidhiram Farwell
Explanation: Nidhiram Farwell was not associated with the literary movement known as the Jonaki Yug.

  1. United Arab Emirates is made up of-

(a) Five Sheikhdoms
(b) Six Sheikhdoms
(c) Seven Sheikhdoms
(d) Nine Sheikhdoms

Option(c) Seven Sheikhdoms
Explanation: The United Arab Emirates consists of seven emirates, also known as sheikhdoms.

  1. Which one of the following pairs of countries and capitals is wrongly matched?

Country Capital

(a) Belgiumb. Brussel’s
(b) Brazil Rio de Janerio
(c) North Korea. Pyong Yong
(d) Sudan Omdurman

Option(b) Brazil - Rio de Janeiro
Explanation: The capital of Brazil is Brasília, not Rio de Janeiro.

  1. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) Of all the African countries Nigeria has the highest population.
(b) The rive Rio Grande is situated in North America.
(c) The only dependent territory in Europe is Gibraltar.
(d) California has temperate maritime climate.

Option (d) California has temperate maritime climate.
Explanation: California has a diverse climate, but it is not strictly a temperate maritime climate throughout.

  1. Maoris is used for the original people of

(a) Tasmania
(b) South Africa
(c) New Zealand
(d) Fiji

Option(c) New Zealand
Explanation: The term 'Maori' refers to the indigenous Polynesian people of New Zealand.

  1. Most of the world’s wheat producing regions have-

(a) more than 1500 mm of rainfall
(b) less than 300 mm of rainfall
(c), very high rainfall
(d) less than 1000 mm of rainfall.

Option(b) less than 300 mm of rainfall
Explanation: Wheat can thrive in areas with less than 300 mm of rainfall, particularly in semi-arid regions.

  1. Identity the correct setting of islands in Japan-

(a)Hokkaido-Honshu-Kyushu-Shikoku
(b)Honshu-Hokkaido-Shikoku-Kyushu
(c)Hokkaido-Honshu-Shikoku-Kyushu
(d)Honshu-Shikoku-Hokkaido-Kyushu

Option (a) Hokkaido-Honshu-Kyushu-Shikoku
Explanation: This is the correct order of the main islands of Japan.

  1. Which of the following statement is correct?

(a) Maharashtra produces iron ore
(b) Uttar Pradesh has no cement factory
(c) Punjab produces rice
(d) Andaman Island have no indigenous population.

Option (c) Punjab produces rice
Explanation: Punjab is known as the 'Granary of India' and is a major producer of rice.

  1. The smallest state in India from the view point-

(a) Goa
(b) Sikkim
(c) Nagaland
(d) Tripura

Option(a) Goa
Explanation: Goa is the smallest state in India by area.

  1. Punjab in winter gets precipitation because of-

(a) Retreating monsoons.
(b) Cyclones coming from Mediter ranmean and Gulf of Iran.
(c) S. W. Monsoons
(d) N. E. Trade wind.

Option(b) Cyclones coming from Mediterranean and Gulf of Iran.
Explanation: Winter precipitation in Punjab is primarily due to cyclonic activity.

  1. Which of the following does not apply to Gujarat?

(a) It is the largest producer of groundnut.
(b) It is the largest producer of tobacco
(c) It is the largest producer of salt
(d) It is the largest producer of milk product.

Option (d) It is the largest producer of milk products.
Explanation: While Gujarat is a significant producer of milk, it is not the largest producer of milk products compared to other states like Maharashtra.

  1. India is self sufficient in all of the following minerals except-

(a) Coal
(b) Copper
(c) Manganese
(d) Mica

Option (b) Copper
Explanation: India is not self-sufficient in copper and relies on imports.

  1. The first railway line in India from Bombay to Pune passes through-

(a) Palghat
(b). Thaighat
(c) Bhorghat
(d) Sengottan Pass

Option (c) Bhorghat
Explanation: The first railway line from Bombay to Pune passed through the Bhorghat pass.

  1. The limestorie for Bokajan Cement factory comes mainly from-

(a) Silbheta
(b) Dilat hili
(c) Dambuk
(d) Koilajan

Option(a) Silbheta
Explanation: The limestone for the Bokajan Cement factory is sourced mainly from Silbheta.

  1. Nameri wildlife sanctuary, which has recently been upgraded to a National Park is located in the district of-

(a) Tinsukia
(b) Dhemaji
(c) Sonitpur
(d) North Cachar Hills

Option (c) Sonitpur
Explanation: Nameri National Park is located in Sonitpur district of Assam

  1. The total area cropped in Assam now stands at about-

(a) 27 million hectares
(b) 20 million hectares
(c) 15 million hectares
(d) 12 million hectares

Option(a) 27 million hectares
Explanation: Assam has seen significant agricultural development, with the cropped area now estimated to be around 27 million hectares.

  1. In respect of basin area coverage the rank of the Brahmaputra among the rivers of the world is-

(a) Second
(b) First
(c) Third
(d) Fifth

Option (a) Second
Explanation: The Brahmaputra River ranks second in terms of basin area coverage globally, following the Amazon.

  1. The Gai, a tributory to Brahmaputra is situated between-

(a) The Dibang and the Dihang
(b) The Dihang and the Subansiri
(c) The Subansiri and the Bharati
(d) The Bharati and the Bornadi

Option (b) The Dihang and the Subansiri
Explanation: The Gai River flows between the Dihang and Subansiri rivers, contributing to the Brahmaputra system.

  1. …. the though India was to be a federation, the federation was not the result of an agreement by the States to join in a federation, and that the federation not being the result of a agreement, no State has the right to secede from it. The federation is a Union because it is indestructible’. Who made the statement during Constituent Assembly debated:

(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Rajendra Prasad
(c) Sardar Patel
(d)Dr. B. R. Ambedkar

Option (d) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
Explanation: Dr. B. R. Ambedkar emphasized the nature of the Indian federation during the Constituent Assembly discussions, asserting its indestructible character.

  1. The President can proclaim emergency under-

(a) Article 353
(b) Article 355
(c) Article 365
(d) Article 356

Option (d) Article 356
Explanation: Article 356 allows the President of India to proclaim a state of emergency in case of the breakdown of constitutional machinery in a state.

  1. Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) became constitutionalized bodies under-

(a) Art, 12 of the Constitution
(b) Art, 40 of the Constitution
(c) The 64th Amendment Bill of 1989
(d) The 73rd and 74th Amendments (1992) to the Constitution.

Option (d) The 73rd and 74th Amendments (1992) to the Constitution
Explanation: The 73rd and 74th Amendments introduced constitutional provisions for the establishment of Panchayati Raj Institutions in India.

  1. Under Art, 243 ZD, a District Planning, Committee forwards the draft development plan for the district as a whole covering Panchayats and Municipalities (after consolidating their plans) to-

(a) The Planning Commissionliberalisation
(b) Governor of the State
(c) The Covernment of the State
(d) Union Finance Minister

Option (c) The Government of the State
Explanation: Article 243ZD mandates that the District Planning Committee submits its draft development plan to the state government.

  1. Which of the following is wrongly matched?

(a) December 9, 1947-First meeting of the Constituent Assembly.
(b) November 26, 1946- People of India enacted and gave to themsleves the Constitutioin.
(c) January 24, 1950-the Constitution was finally signed by the members of the Constituent Assembly.
(d) January 26, 1950-date of commencement of the Constitution.

Option(b) November 26, 1946 - People of India enacted and gave to themselves the Constitution.
Explanation: November 26, 1946, was when the Constituent Assembly was formed, but the Constitution was adopted on January 26, 1950.

  1. The Dinesh Goswami Committee was concerned with-

(a) de-nationalisation of banks
(b) electoral reforms-
(c) insurgency in the North-East
(d) the problem of the Chakmas

Option (b) electoral reforms
Explanation: The Dinesh Goswami Committee was set up to recommend reforms related to the electoral process in India.

  1. Subjects entrusted to the care of the Panchayats are listed in-

(a) Eleventh Schedule
(b) Twelfth Schedule
(c) State list
(d) Seventh Schedule

Option (a) Eleventh Schedule
Explanation: The Eleventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains the subjects assigned to the Panchayati Raj Institutions.

  1. Which amendment provides for an authoritative version of the Constitution in Hindi?

(a) 56th amendment
(b) 58th amendment
(c) 60th amendment
(d) 61st amendment

Option (c) 60th amendment
Explanation: The 60th Amendment to the Constitution provides for an authoritative version of the Constitution in Hindi.

  1. The Supreme Court ruled Parliament had no power to change the basic structure of the constitution in-

(a) Golaknath case
(b) Minerva Mills case
(c) Keshavananda Bharati case
(d) Gopalan case

Option(c) Keshavananda Bharati case
Explanation: The Keshavananda Bharati case established the 'basic structure' doctrine, asserting that certain fundamental features of the Constitution cannot be amended.

  1. After liberalisation planning has been-

(a) done away with
(b) very much ignored
(c) relegated to the background
(d) corabined with market economy

Option(c) relegated to the background
Explanation: Post-liberalization, the emphasis on central planning has diminished, with more focus on market mechanisms.

  1. The Union Cabinet (January 1999) approved the draft Ninth Path (1997-2002) amounting to:

(a) Rs. 374,000 crore
(b) Rs. 290,000 crore
(c) Rs. 859,000 crore
(d) Rs. 10,000 crore

Option(a) Rs. 374,000 crore
Explanation: The Ninth Plan approved by the Union Cabinet had an outlay of Rs. 374,000 crore.

  1. As per Reserve Bank of India figures (3rd week of January 1999), the country s forex (foreign exchange) reserves stood at-

(a) US dollar 30, 108 million
(b) US dollar 27,000 million
(c) US dollar 25,000 million
(d) US dollar 29,000 million

Option(a) US dollar 30, 108 million
Explanation: In January 1999, India’s foreign exchange reserves were reported at approximately USD 30,108 million.

  1. Given below re two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Rea- son (R).

Asserrtion: (A): The emergence of economic globalism does not imply the decline of socialist ideology.

Reason (R): The ideology of socialism believes in universalism and globalism. In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?

(a) Both A and R. are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b). Both A and R are true but R. is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

Option (b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
Explanation: Both statements are true, but the Reason does not adequately explain the Assertion.

  1. Which one of the following Five Year Plans recognised human developinent as the core of all developmental efforts?

(a) Third Five Year Plan
(b) Fifth Five Year Plan
(c) Sixth Five Year Plan
(d) Eight Five Year Plan

Option(d) Eighth Five Year Plan
Explanation: The Eighth Five Year Plan emphasized human development as a central goal of its objectives.

  1. ‘Self-sufficiency’ in food, in the rue sense of freedom from hunger, has not been achieved in India inspite of a three fold rise in food production since the fifties. Which of the following are reasons for it?

(a) The Green Revolution has been restricted to small pockets of the country.
(b) The cost of food is too high compared to the earnings of the poor.
(c) Too much emphasis is laid on wheat & paddy compared to coarse grains.
(d) The gains of the Green Revolution have largely accrued to cash crop rather than food crop.
Codeos-

(a) abc
(c) acd
(b) abd
(d) bcd

Option (d) bcd
Explanation: The high cost of food compared to earnings, overemphasis on wheat and paddy, and the benefits of the Green Revolution primarily accruing to cash crops explain the lack of true self-sufficiency.

  1. A major shief in the 8th Five-Year plan from its preceding ones is-

(a) The significant reduction in public sector outlays
(b) Concentration of public investment in infrastructure sectors
(c) Major investment in agriculture so as to promote exports.
(d) Major investment in sectors in which industrial sickness has been a chronic problem.

Option (b) Concentration of public investment in infrastructure sectors
Explanation: The Eighth Five-Year Plan focused on increasing public investment in infrastructure, a shift from previous plans.

  1. Which one of the following sets of economists strongly favoured market economy?

(a) Adam Smith, Keynes, Hicks
(b) Adam Smith, Marx, Strumlin
(c) Adam Smith, Hayek, Friedman
(d) Adam Smith, Ricardo, Galbraith

Option (c) Adam Smith, Hayek, Friedman
Explanation: Adam Smith, Friedrich Hayek, and Milton Friedman are prominent economists known for their advocacy of free-market economies.

  1. The concept of mixed economy envisages-

(a) integrated and balanced economic development
(b) balanced development of agriculture and industry
(c) equal importance to economic and social values
(d) co-existence of public and private sectors

Option(d) co-existence of public and private sectors
Explanation: A mixed economy combines elements of both capitalism and socialism, allowing for the coexistence of public and private sectors.

  1. The principle of communal representation in India was first introduced by-

(a) The Indian Councils Act, 1861
(b) The Indian Councils Act, 1892
(c) The Indian Councils Act, 1909
(d) The Government of India Act, 1919

Option(c) The Indian Councils Act, 1909
Explanation: The Indian Councils Act of 1909, also known as the Morley-Minto Reforms, introduced the concept of separate electorates for Muslims.

  1. Who was the first woman President of the Indian National Congress?

(a) Vijay Laxmi Pandit
(b) Annie Besant
(c) Kasturba Gandhi
(d) Sucheta Kripalini

Option(b) Annie Besant
Explanation: Annie Besant became the first woman to preside over the Indian National Congress in 1917.

  1. Who edited ‘Young India’?

(a) Lala Lajpat Rai
(b) Annie Besant
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) S. N. Banerjee

Option (c) Mahatma Gandhi
Explanation: Mahatma Gandhi was the editor of the journal 'Young India', which played a significant role in the Indian independence movement.

  1. Who founded the “Servants of India Society’?

(a) M. G Ranade
(b) GK. Gokhale
(c) S. N. Banerjee
(d) Dada Bhaiu Naoroji

Option(b) G. K. Gokhale
Explanation: G. K. Gokhale founded the Servants of India Society in 1905 to promote social reform and national education.

  1. “The Suwat Split was the saddest episode in the history of the Congress” Who said this?

(a) B. Tilak
(b) S. N. Banerjee
(c) Annie Besant
(d) Lala Lajpat Rai

Option (c) Annie Besant
Explanation: Annie Besant remarked on the Surat Split, which occurred during the Congress session in 1907, reflecting the divisions within the party.

  1. For whom did Valentine Chirol say, “He was the Father of Indian Unrest’.

(a) B. C. Pal
(b) Lala Lajpat Rai
(c) B. G Tilak
(d) Bhagat Singh

Option(c) B. G. Tilak
Explanation: Valentine Chirol referred to Bal Gangadhar Tilak as the 'Father of Indian Unrest' due to his role in the freedom movement.

  1. Which Bill was being debated in the Central Legislative Assembly when Bhagat Singh threw a bomb in Central Legislative Assembly In 19297

(a) Tinde Disputes Bill
(b) Public Safety Bill
(c) Ilbert Bill
(d) None of the above

Option (b) Public Safety Bill
Explanation: Bhagat Singh and Batukeshwar Dutt threw a bomb in the Central Legislative Assembly in protest against the Public Safety Bill.

  1. “These deaths, injuries, humiliations and atrocities are the price of liberty, a price or country is asked to pay for its desire to be free’. Whose words are those?

(a) Nabin Chandra Bordoloi
(b) T. R. Phukan
(c) Gopinath Bordoloi
(d) Padmadhar Chaliha

Option(c) Gopinath Bordoloi
Explanation: This quote is attributed to Gopinath Bordoloi, expressing the sacrifices made for freedom.

  1. Which is the od. nan out?

(a) WSOK
(b) YUQM
(c) OKGC
(d) JGDA

Option(d) JGDA
Explanation: The other options (WSOK, YUQM, OKGC) can be seen as coded sequences, while JGDA does not fit that pattern.

  1. In a group of children each child gives a gift to every other. If the number of gifts is 132, find then number of children.

(a) 16
(b) 14
(c) 12
(d) 11

Option (b) 14
Explanation: The number of gifts (g) can be represented as n(n-1)/2 = 132, which simplifies to n = 14.

  1. IF MASTER is coded as OCUVGT, which on cof the following will be the code for BRING?

(a) ETKPB
(b) DTKPI
(c) DTKPB
(d) ETΕΡI

  1. If 8×6-43,6 x 4-32, 2 x 4-12, than 4 x 87

(a) 48
( b) 32
(c) 24
(d) 16

Option (c) 24
Explanation: This follows a pattern where the products are calculated differently. The formula appears to be:
For 8x6: 8+6+(8×6)−43=438+6+(8×6)−43=43
For 6x4: 6+4+(6×4)−32=326+4+(6×4)−32=32
For 2x4: 2+4+(2×4)−12=122+4+(2×4)−12=12
Following this pattern for 4x8:
4+8+(4×8)=4+8+32=444+8+(4×8)=4+8+32=44, so if we subtract 20 as per the earlier pattern, we get 44−20=2444−20=24.

  1. We see the same face of the moon, beacuse the durations of-

(a) moon’s rotation and revolution are same
(b) Moon’s rotation and earth’s rotation are same
(c) moon’s revolution and earth’s rotation are same
(d) moon’s revolution and earth’s revolution are same.

Option (a) moon's rotation and revolution are same
Explanation: The Moon is in synchronous rotation with Earth, meaning it takes the same time to rotate on its axis as it does to orbit around the Earth (approximately 27.3 days). This is why we always see the same side of the Moon from Earth.

  1. What is exbiology?

(a) Science dealing with the physical and chemical state of dead bodies.
(b) Science dealing with the physical and chemical satete of fossils.
(c) Science dealing with life or possibility of life on other planets.
(d) Science dealing with micro-organisms in the atmosphere.

Option(c) Science dealing with life or possibility of life on other planets.
Explanation: Exobiology, or astrobiology, explores the potential for life beyond Earth, including the study of environments that could support life and the conditions under which life might arise.

  1. Nuclear energy is a result of conversion of-

(a) neutron into proton
(b) light into heat
(c) helium into hydrogen
(d) mass into energy

Option (d) mass into energy
Explanation: According to Einstein's theory of relativity, specifically the equation E=mc2E=mc2, mass can be converted into energy. This principle is the basis for the energy released in nuclear reactions, where a small amount of mass is transformed into a significant amount of energy.

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