APSC CCE GS 2001 Question Paper with answer

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APSC CCE General Studies 2001 Question Paper With Solutions

Go through the question paper of APSC CCE GS with solutions. Solving previous years’ question papers will help you get a very good idea of how the questions are asked in the General Studies paper. We have hidden the answers so that you can solve it yourself first before reading the actual answer. Good luck.

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

Code no. :AKB. 99/XX-28

2001

TEST BOOKLET

GENERAL STUDIES

Time allowed : 2(Two) Hours Full Marks : 200

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. The Roll Number, Name of the Center, Subject and Series wherever necessary shall be written legibly and correctly in the space provided on the Answer Sheet.
  2. 2 No Roll Number or name or anything else except the actual Answers to the Questions, shall be written, anywhere inside the Test Booklet.
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  11. This Test Booklet contains one sheet (two papges) for Rough Work at the end.

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

Contact- Bharali (Mbl. No.- 9864631895 no. of Question : 100

1. Functions of the Public Service Commission are dealt with in Article-

(A) 317 of the Constitution
(B) 318 of the Constitution
(C) 319 of the Constitution
(D) 320 of the Constitution

Option(D) 320 of the Constitution
Explanation: Article 320 of the Indian Constitution covers the functions of the Public Service Commissions.

2. The first general election in independent India was held in

(A) 1951
(B) 1952
(C) 1953
(D) 1954

Option (A) 1951
Explanation: India's first general election was held from October 25, 1951, to February 21, 1952.

3. The inaugural meeting of the Constitution Assembly of India was president over by-

(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(B) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(C) Dr. Sachidananda Sinha
(D) B. N. Rao

Option(C) Dr. Sachidananda Sinha
Explanation: Dr. Sachidananda Sinha was the temporary chairman of the inaugural session of the Constituent Assembly in 1946.

4. The first amendment to the Constitution of India was made in-

(A) 1951
(B) 1957
(C) 1954
(D) 1960

Option (A) 1951
Explanation: The first amendment, introduced in 1951, addressed issues related to freedom of speech, right to equality, etc.

  1. Who first expressed the slogan ‘Inquilab Zindabad?

(A) Shaheed Bhagat Singh
(B) Udham Singh
(C) Zail Singh
(D) Karan Singh

Option(A) Shaheed Bhagat Singh
Explanation: Bhagat Singh popularized the slogan 'Inquilab Zindabad' (Long Live the Revolution) during India’s freedom struggle.

  1. Sarojini Naidu was the first Indian woman President of

(A) Indian Theosophical Society
(B) Simon Commission
(C) Cabinet Mission
(D) Indian National Congress

Option (D) Indian National Congress
Explanation: Sarojini Naidu was elected President of the Indian National Congress in 1925.

  1. The ‘Quit India’ resolution was passed by the Congress in Bombay in

(A) 1948
(B) 1944
(C) 1943
(D) 1945

Option(C) 1943
Explanation: The Quit India Movement was launched in August 1942.

  1. Who was not the Chief Minister of Assam in independent India?

(A) Gopinath Bordoloi
(B) Sir Muhammad Saadulla
(C) Birohu Ram Medhi
(D) Bimala Prasad Chaliha

Option (B) Sir Muhammad Saadulla
Explanation: Sir Muhammad Saadulla was the Premier of Assam during British rule but not a Chief Minister after independence.

  1. Who was Sir Akbar Hydari

(A) Chief Justice of the High Court
(B) Speaker of Assam Legislative Assembly
(C) Governor of Assam
(D) Chairman of Assam Public Service Commission

Option(C) Governor of Assam
Explanation: Sir Akbar Hydari served as the Governor of Assam.

10 .The Cabinet was for the first time accorded legal recognition in Britain in

(A) 1914
(B) 1937
(C) 1686
(D)1884

Option(B) 1937
Explanation: The cabinet received formal legal status in the United Kingdom with the Ministers of the Crown Act in 1937.

  1. Any dispute relating to the validity of the elections of the Vice-President of the Gaon Panchayat under the Assam Panchayat Act, 1994 shall be decided by-

(A) BDO
(B) Deputy Commissinoner
(C) Presedent of the Goan Panchayat
(D) Members of the Goan Panchayat

Option (B) Deputy Commissioner
Explanation: The Deputy Commissioner has the authority to address election disputes under the Assam Panchayat Act.

  1. The Sixth Schedule to the Cnstitution of India provides for-

(A) Panchayati Raj Institutions
(B) District Councils
(C) bodo Autonomous Council
(D) North-Eastern Council

Option (B) District Councils
Explanation: The Sixth Schedule provides for autonomous district councils in certain tribal areas of northeastern states.

  1. Which one of the following is not included as the Fundamental Duty of the Indian citizen?

(A) To abide by the Constitution and respectits ideals and institutions
(B) To uphold and protect the sovereignty and integrity of India
(C) To develop romper temper
(D) To defend the Country and render national service when called upon to do so.

The correct option is: (C) To develop romper temper Explanation: The Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen are listed in Article 51A of the Indian Constitution. Option C, To develop romper temper, is not mentioned as a Fundamental Duty.

14. Who among the following was not a member of the Drafting Committee of the Constitution?

(A) B. R. Ambedkar
(B) K. M. Munshi
(C) Jawaharlal Nehru
(D) Mohd. Saadulla

Option(C) Jawaharlal Nehru
Explanation: Jawaharlal Nehru was not a member of the Drafting Committee.

  1. In which of the following States Article 360 is not applicable?

(A) Nagaland
(B) Jammu and Kashmir
(C) Manipur
(D) Mizoram

Option (B) Jammu and Kashmir
Explanation: Article 360 (Financial Emergency) was not applicable to Jammu and Kashmir before its special status was revoked.

16 . Lord Ripon is known as the father of-

(A) Local Self-Government in India
(B) All India Services
(C) Hill Administration in India
(D) State Admistration in India

Option(A) Local Self-Government in India
Explanation: Lord Ripon introduced reforms for local self-government in India in the 1880s.

17 . Three-tier Panchayati Raj System was recom-

(A) Sarkaria Commission
(B) Balawantrai Mehta Committee
(C) Ashok Mehta Committee
(D) Administrative Reforms Commission

Option (B) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
Explanation: The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee recommended the three-tier Panchayati Raj system in 1957.

  1. In India, Planning Commission is a-

(A) Constitutional body
(B) Extra-constitutional body
(C) Executive body
(D) Mandatory body

Option (B) Extra-constitutional body
Explanation: The Planning Commission was not established by the Constitution and is an extra-constitutional body.

19. Community Development Programme is based on the philosophy of

(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) B. R. Ambedkar
(C) Gopinath Bordoloi
(D) Mahatma Gandhi

Option (D) Mahatma Gandhi
Explanation: The Community Development Programme in India drew inspiration from Gandhian ideals of rural upliftment.

  1. Fundamental duties of Indian Citizens are provided by

(A) 41 st amendment
(B) 42nd amendment
(C) 43rd amendment
(D) 44th amendment

Option(B) 42nd amendment
Explanation: The 42nd Amendment of 1976 added the Fundamental Duties to the Constitution.

21 . If the third Monday in a month is 17th, which day will occur five times in that month?

(A) Tuesday
(B) Friday
(C) Thursday
(D) Saturday

Option(A) Tuesday
Explanation: If the third Monday is on the 17th, Tuesdays will appear five times in that month.

22. If52x45-30, 73×23-23 and 84×52-48, then 62×43-?

(A) 20
(B) 30
(C) 24
(D)32

Option (C) 24
Explanation: This question appears to follow a specific sequence; the answer is 24 following the given logic.

  1. Which of the following numbers does not possess the common property that the other three numbers do?

(A) 8745
(B) 6428
(C) 7346
(D) 5294

Option (C) 7346
Explanation: 7346 is different based on certain numerical properties not shared with the others.

  1. A is the brother of B and C, D is C’s mother and B’s sister, E is B’s sister. How is C related to E?

(A) A Niece
(B) As Aunt
(C) As Cousin
(D) As Mother

Option(A) Niece
Explanation: Based on the relationships, C is E's niece.

  1. A series of numbers set as 8, 20, 50. What will be the next in the order of sequence?

(A) 150
(B) 125
(C) 110
(D) 115

Option(A) 150
Explanation: The sequence suggests a pattern that leads to 150.

  1. B. J. K. M. and S are computer operators in a farm G Their seat arrangements are-
  1. S is left of K
  2. Jand M are right of B
  3. S and M do not sit together
  4. Band Mare rivals and always sit on either sides of J Who is sitting in the centre?

(A) M
(B) J
(C) B
(D) K

Option (B) J
Explanation: Based on the seating arrangement, J is in the center.

  1. Find the odd group out-
  1. Pen. Nib, Ink, Pencil
  2. Zebra, Giraffe, Goat, Sheep
  3. Dispur, Imphal, Dimapur, Agartala
  4. Yamuna, Gomti, Gandak, Ghaghara

Option (B) Zebra, Giraffe, Goat, Sheep
Explanation: Zebra is the odd one out as it is a wild animal, unlike the others.

  1. The continue number of a special series is read as- 9531,9642,9753 What will be the next correct order in the numerical series?

(A) 9420
(B) 8642
(C) 8751
(D) 9864

Option (D) 9864
Explanation: The sequence progresses numerically, making 9864 the correct continuation.

  1. Which of the following is the largest fraction?

(A) 1/5
(B) 5/4
(C) 2/3
(D)3/8

The correct option is: (B) 5/4

  1. If 28th February of 2001 is Wednessday what will be the day of the week on 28th February, 2002?

(A) Wednessday
(B) Friday
(C) Thursday
(D) Tuesday

Option (C) Thursday
Explanation: 2002 is not a leap year, so February 28th advances to Thursday.

  1. A 20 cm x 20 cm x 30 cm rectangular box is tied with a ribbon outside along the middle of the six faces. Assuming that an extra 10 cm of the ribbon is required for tying the knot, the mini mum length of the ribbon is

(A) 80 cm
(B) 170 cm
(C) 130 cm
(D) 190 cm

Option(D) 190 cm
Explanation: The ribbon covers the perimeter of the six faces of a 20 cm x 20 cm x 30 cm box, requiring two loops: one around the width and another around the height. Each loop totals 80 cm (20+30+20+30), so 160 cm, plus 10 cm extra for the knot, adds up to 170 cm.

32. A sheep S id tied by two ropes each of 15 metres long to two posts P and Q which are 20 metres apart. The region over which the sheep can move is the shaded . region given by

Option B

  1. If ATAL is coded 74, then LATA will be coded as

(A) 47
(B) 48
(C) 74
(D) 77

Option(A) 47
Explanation: This is a mirror coding. The code of “ATAL” as 74, when reversed, gives “LATA” as 47.

34. The missing number in the third circle

is-

(A) 3
(B) 9
(C) 12
(D) 15

Option C

  1. Half percent of hundred is

(A) 50
(B) 5
(C) 0.5
(D) 0.05

Option (C) 0.5
Explanation: A half percent (0.5%) of 100 is calculated by (0.5/100) × 100 = 0.5.

  1. The devastating earthquake of Gujarat in 2001 took place on

(A) 20th January
(B) 26th January
(C) 13th January
(D) 27th January

Option(B) 26th January
Explanation: The Gujarat earthquake occurred on 26th January 2001, during India's Republic Day celebrations, causing widespread devastation.

  1. The National Commission on Population (2000) is chaired by

(A) K. C. Pant
(B) Krishna Singh
(C) Dr. A. M. Khusro
(D) Atal Bihari Vajpayee

Option (D) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
Explanation: The National Population Commission, established in 2000, was chaired by the then Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee to oversee India’s population policy.

  1. The provisional figure of India’s population as per 2001-m census is

(A) 1007 million
(B) 1017 million
(C) 1027 million
(D) 1037 million

Option (C) 1027 million
Explanation: The provisional figure from the 2001 Census reported India's population as approximately 1027 million.

  1. The present Governor of Reserve Bank of India is

(A) Dr. C. Rangarajan
(B) Dr.D.T. Lakdewala
(C) Dr. Bimal Jalan
(D) Dr. L. K. Jha

Option (C) Dr. Bimal Jalan
Explanation: Dr. Bimal Jalan served as the Governor of the Reserve Bank of India from 1997 to 2003.

  1. The present Secretary-General of United Nations is-

(A) U. Thant
(B) Robert Mecnamara
(C) Nelson Mandella
(D) Kofi Annan

Option (D) Kofi Annan
Explanation: Kofi Annan, who held the position from 1997 to 2006, was known for his contributions to global peace efforts and won a Nobel Peace Prize in 2001.

  1. The Enron Power Project is situated in

(A) Maharashtra
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Karnataka
(D) Goa

Option (A) Maharashtra
Explanation: The Enron Power Project, also known as the Dabhol Power Project, was located in Maharashtra

  1. The aim of India’s economic planning is to raise

(A) Living standard of people
(B) National income
(C) Per capita income
(D) All of the above

Option(D) All of the above
Explanation: India’s economic planning aims to improve the standard of living, national income, and per capita income for its citizens.

  1. The name of Tehelka chief is

(A) Aniruddha Bahal
(B) Sanjay Khan
(C) Tarun Tejpal
(D) Pranay Roy

OptionC) Tarun Tejpal
Explanation: Tarun Tejpal, founder and editor-in-chief of Tehelka, played a prominent role in the investigative journalism that exposed corruption scandals in India.

  1. Which one of the following is popularly known as software capital of India?

(A) Mumbai
(B) Bangalore
(C) Hyderabad
(D) Kolkata

Option(B) Bangalore
Explanation: Bangalore, known as the Silicon Valley of India, hosts numerous IT companies and is a hub for tech and software development.

  1. Dehra Dun is the Capital town of

(A) Uttaranchal
(B) Chattisgarh
(C) Jharkhand
(D) Himachal Pradesh

Option (A) Uttaranchal
Explanation: Dehra Dun (now known as Dehradun) is the capital of Uttarakhand, formerly called Uttaranchal.

  1. The population of Assam as per provisional data of 2001 census falls within the range of

(A) 210 lakh-255 lakh
(B) 255 lakh-250 lakh
(C) 250 lakh-270 lakh
(D) 270 lakh-290 lakh

Option (C) 250-270 lakh
Explanation: According to the 2001 Census, Assam’s population was in the range of 250 to 270 lakh.

  1. To which one of the following States does the district of ‘Bhuj’ belong?

(A) karnataka
(B) Rajastan
(C) Gujarat
(D) Maharastra

Option(C) Gujarat
Explanation: Bhuj is located in Gujarat, known for the devastating 2001 earthquake.

48 Community Development is organised on the basis of

(A) Population
(B) Area
(C) Community
(D) Population and community

Option (B) Area
Explanation: Community Development programs in India are organized primarily based on geographical areas.

49. The Ninth Five-Year Plan will be completed on 31st March

(A) 2002
(B) 2003
(C) 2004
(D) 2005

Option A) 2002
Explanation: The Ninth Five-Year Plan spanned from 1997 to 2002, focusing on accelerated growth.

  1. ‘India 2020: A Vision for the New Millennium’ is a new book which has attracted readers’ attention. Who is the author of the book?

(A) Kushwant Singh
(B) R. K. Lakshman
(C) A. P. J. Abdul kalam and Y. S. Rajan
(D) Nirad C. Chaudhuri and V. S. Naipaul

Option (C) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam and Y.S. Rajan
Explanation: Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam and Y.S. Rajan co-authored this book, envisioning India’s progress by 2020.

  1. Indian born Scientist Subramanian Chandrasekhar had won the Nobel Prize for his work in the area of

(A) Nuclear Medicine
(B) Biochemistry
(C) Molecular Biology
(D) Astrophysics

Option(D) Astrophysics
Explanation: Chandrasekhar won the Nobel Prize in 1983 for his work on the Chandrasekhar limit in astrophysics.

  1. J. M. Lyngdoh was appointed as the Chief Election Commissioner to succeed M. S. Gill. Who was appointed as Election Commissioner in place of Lyngdoh?

(A) K. C. Mittal
(B) B. B. Tandon
(C) Dr. R. S. Paroda
(D)) Dr. S. Rame Gowda

Option(B) B.B. Tandon
Explanation: B.B. Tandon was appointed Election Commissioner following J.M. Lyngdoh’s term.

  1. Justice Venkataswami Commission is in the national news pertains to

(A) Ayodhya issue
(B) Enron Issue
(C) 1993 riots in Mumbai
(D) Tehelka expose

Option (D) Tehelka expose
Explanation: The Venkataswami Commission investigated allegations made in the Tehelka exposé regarding corruption in defense procurement.

  1. On March 31, Union Commerce Minister announced New EXIM policy for the year 1999-2000. It aims at

(A) setting up free trade zones
(B) talking up 16 rail-line projects for better
(C) allowing 74% Foreign Direct Investment
(D) setting up of Expenditure Reforms Commissions

Option(A) setting up free trade zones
Explanation: The New EXIM (Export-Import) Policy for 1999-2000, announced by the Union Commerce Minister, aimed to enhance India's export competitiveness. One of its key features was the establishment of free trade zones, which are areas where goods can be landed, handled, manufactured, or reconfigured and re-exported without the intervention of customs authorities. This initiative was designed to promote exports and attract foreign investment.

  1. The Euro (European single currency) comes into effect from

(A) 1998
(B) 1999
(C) 2000
(D) 2001

Option (B) 1999
Explanation: The Euro currency was introduced in 1999, initially used for electronic transactions before physical currency became available in 2002.

  1. The Indus Valley monuments were built of-

(A) sun-dried bricks
(B) bumt bricks
(C) stone
(D) wood and bamboo

Option(A) Sun-dried bricks
Explanation: Indus Valley structures were primarily made of sun-dried bricks due to the scarcity of other durable materials.

  1. The historian to accompany Sultan Mahmud of Ghazni in several of his expenditions was

(a) Ferishta
(b) Alberuni
(c) Minhazuddin Siraj
(d) Badauni

Option (B) Alberuni
Explanation: Alberuni accompanied Mahmud of Ghazni on his expeditions and documented Indian culture in his works.

  1. Gandhiji called off the Non-Cooperation Movement because of a violent incident at

(a) Bardoli
(c) Chauri Chaura
(b) Dandi
(d) Ahmedabad

Option(C) Chauri Chaura
Explanation: Gandhi halted the Non-Cooperation Movement following the Chauri Chaura incident, where police officers were killed in a violent clash.

  1. The Gandhara School of Art emphasised on-

(a) Indian material and Greek style
(b) Greek materials and Indian style
(c) Both Indian materials and Indian style
(d) Neither Indian materials nor Indian style

Option (A) Indian material, Greek style
Explanation: The Gandhara School of Art combined Indian materials with Hellenistic (Greek) stylistic influences, evident in the sculptures from the region.

60. The Greek General defeated by Chandragupta Maurya was

(a) Antigonas
(b) Seleucas
(c) Eudomas
(d) Philippos

Option(B) Seleucas
Explanation: After defeating Seleucas I, Chandragupta Maurya negotiated an alliance that included a marriage and land exchanges, strengthening Maurya's rule.

  1. Who is called the ‘Indian Napoleon’?

(a) Samudragupta
(b) Chandragupta-II Vikramaditya
(c) Skandagupta
(d) Pulakesin-11

Option (A) Samudragupta
Explanation: Samudragupta of the Gupta dynasty is called the 'Indian Napoleon' due to his military conquests and expansionist policies, which brought a large part of India under his rule, much like Napoleon in Europe.

  1. Grand Trunk Road which extended from Sonargaon in East Bengal to Sindh was built by

(a) Akbor
(b) Jahangir
(c) Sher Shah
(d) Alauddin Khalji

Option(C) Sher Shah
Explanation: Sher Shah Suri constructed the Grand Trunk Road to facilitate trade and communication across northern India, improving the region’s infrastructure.

  1. Who passed the vernacular Press Act restricting the freedom of the Press?

(a) Lord Dallhousie
(b) Lord Lytton
(c) Lord Dufferin
(d) Lord Lansdown

Option (B) Lord Lytton
Explanation: Lord Lytton passed the Vernacular Press Act in 1878 to restrict the Indian press and control dissent against British rule, particularly in vernacular languages.

  1. The slogan ‘Jai Hind’ was coined by

(a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(b) Subhas Chandra Bose
(c) Bipin Chandra Pal
(d) Lala Lajpat Rai

Option (B) Subhas Chandra Bose
Explanation: The phrase 'Jai Hind' became popular as a patriotic slogan and was first coined by Subhas Chandra Bose during the independence movement.

  1. Chanakya who helped Chandragupta Maurya to annihilate the Nanda Kingdom was a Brahmin from

(a) Taxila
(b) Pataliputra
(c) Kanauj
(d) Gandhara

Option(A) Taxila
Explanation: Chanakya, also known as Kautilya, was originally from Taxila and played a crucial role in helping Chandragupta Maurya establish the Maurya Empire by overthrowing the Nanda dynasty.

  1. The Offices of the Barbaruah and the Barphukan were created by

(a) Sudangpha
(b) Suhungmung Dihingia Raja
(c) Pratap Singha
(d) Jayadhhaj Singha

Option (B) Suhungmung Dihingia Raja
Explanation: Suhungmung Dihingia Raja, an Ahom king, created these administrative positions to improve governance and defense within his kingdom.

  1. The Kachari Ming to assume the title ‘Pratap Narayan’ after defeating the Ahoms was

(a) Indrabalnarayan
(b) Josonarayan
(c) Nirbhayanarayan
(d) Durlabhnarayan

Option(D) Durlabhnarayan
Explanation: Durlabhnarayan of the Kachari kingdom took the title 'Pratap Narayan' after successfully resisting the Ahoms.

  1. Who among the following literators did not receive the patronage of the Koch King Naranarayan?

(a) Ram Saraswati
(b) Ananta Kandali
(c) Sankardeva
(d) Madhav Kandali

Option (C) Sankardeva
Explanation: Sankardeva, a saint-scholar and cultural icon, did not receive direct patronage from King Naranarayan, although his works influenced Assamese culture significantly.

  1. Rudra Singha first built the Rangghar with bamboo and wood. It was rebuilt with brick and mortar by

(a) Siva Singha
(b) Pramatta Singha
(c) Rajeswar Singha
(d) Lakshmi Singha

Option (B) Pramatta Singha
Explanation: Pramatta Singha, Rudra Singha’s successor, reconstructed the Rang Ghar, one of Asia's oldest amphitheaters, using more durable materials like brick and mortar.

  1. The Battle of Mahargarh was fought between

(a) Chandrakanta Singha and the Burmese (b) The Burmese and the British
(c) The Burmese and Ruchinath Buragohain
(d) The Burmese and Purandar Singha

Option (A) Chandrakanta Singha and the Burmese
Explanation: The battle was fought between the Assamese King Chandrakanta Singha and Burmese forces, reflecting the regional conflicts in Assam during that era.

72. Who was the president of the first session of the Asom Chatra Sanmilon?

(a) Rohinikanta Hatibaruah
(b) Kamaluddin Ahmed
(c) Lakshidhar Sharma
(d) Lakshinath Bezbaruah

Option(D) Lakshinath Bezbaruah
Explanation: Lakshinath Bezbaruah, an influential Assamese writer, presided over the inaugural session, contributing to the growth of Assamese nationalism.

  1. One of the following books is the most important literary source for the study of early history of Assam. Which is the book?

(a) The Mahabharata
(b) The Harsha Charita
(c) The Kalika Purana
(d) The Arthashastra

Option (C) The Kalika Purana
Explanation: The Kalika Purana provides insight into ancient Assam’s history, particularly the religious and cultural practices in the Kamrupa region.

  1. The earliest King of Assam was

(a) Mihiranga Danava
(b) Narakasur
(c) Bhaskar Barman
(d) Naranarayan

Option (A) Mihiranga Danava
Explanation: Mihiranga Danava is often considered the first recorded king of Assam, preceding other historical figures like Narakasura and Bhaskar Barman.

  1. Fatiyah-i-Ibriyah’ was written by

(a) Alberuni
(b) Azan Fakir
(c) Mirjumla
(d) Shihauddin Talish

Option (C) Mirjumla
Explanation: Mirjumla, a general under the Mughal Emperor Aurangzeb, documented his campaigns in Assam in this historical work.

  1. In the Battle of Sraighat next to Lachit Barphukan was in the leadership of

(a) Raj Mantri Atanu Buaragohain Dangariya
(b) Kaliabhomora Barphukan
(c) Miri Sandiloi
(d) Manthir Bharali Barua

Option(A) Raj Mantri Atanu Buaragohain Dangariya
Explanation: In the famous Battle of Saraighat, Atanu Buaragohain Dangariya provided support to Lachit Barphukan in leading the Assamese forces against the Mughals.

  1. The Chief Commissionership was introdiced in Assam in

(a) 1873
(c) 1875
(b) 1874
(d) 1876

Option (B) 1874
Explanation: Assam was made a Chief Commissionership in 1874 to facilitate administration after its separation from the Bengal Presidency.

  1. Mark the correct share share of Kuwait’s oil reserve compared fo world’s total

(a) About 16%
(b) Between 20% and 30%
(c) Less than 16%
(d) Equal to the share of Russia

Option (a) About 16%
Explanation:Kuwait has significant oil reserves, and it's often cited that it holds around 16% of the world's total oil reserves.

  1. Which one of the following mountain ranges does not tally with the main Himalayan ranges?

(a) Trans Himalayan Range
(b) Great Himalayan Range
(c) Lesser Himalayan Range
(d) Siwaliks

Option (a) Trans Himalayan Range
Explanation: The Trans Himalayan Range is considered distinct from the main Himalayan ranges, which include the Greater, Lesser Himalayas, and the Siwaliks.

  1. Recognise which of the following rivers is not South-flowing

(a) The Damodar
(b) The Chambal
(C) The Kosi
(d) The Gadadhar

Option

Option(b) The Chambal
Explanation: The Chambal River flows towards the north, whereas the other options flow south.

  1. Which one season of the following is associated with Bordoichila In Assam?

(a) Pre-Monsoon season
(b) Monsoon season
(c) Retreating Monsoon season
(d) Winter season

Option (b) Monsoon season
Explanation: Bordoichila, a local festival in Assam, is associated with the monsoon season when the agricultural activities peak.

  1. Identify the exact location of the Dun Valley

(a) Between the Siwaliks and the Inner Himalaya
(b) Between the Inner Himalaya and the Middle Himalaya
(c) Between the Middle Himalaya and the other Himalaya
(d) Between the Kumaon Himalaya and the Punjab Himalaya

Option (a) Between the Siwaliks and the Inner Himalaya
Explanation: The Dun Valley is a low valley located between the Siwalik hills and the Inner Himalayas.

  1. Which one of the following wildlife sanctuaries of N. E. India is related with Project Tiger?

(a) Dibru-Saikhowa Wildlife Sanctuary
(b) Nameri Wildlife Sanctuary
(c) Sonai-Rupai Wildlife Sanctuary
(d) Manas Wildlife Sanctuary

Option (d) Manas Wildlife Sanctuary
Explanation: Manas Wildlife Sanctuary is a significant tiger reserve under Project Tiger.

  1. Which one of the following is called the weaver city of India?

(a) Panipath
(b) Leh
(c) Varanasi
(d) Jaipur

Option (c) Varanasi
Explanation: Varanasi is often referred to as the 'weaver city' due to its rich heritage in weaving, particularly silk.

  1. In which part of the following in India is located the Mahadeo hills?

(a) Cetral India
(b) Eastern India
(c) Eastern Ghats
(d) Western Ghats

Option(a) Central India
Explanation: The Mahadeo Hills are situated in Central India, mainly in Madhya Pradesh.

  1. Of which one of the following States Chamoli is a district?

(a) Bihar
(b) Uttaranchal
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Himachal Pradesh

Option(b) Uttaranchal
Explanation: Chamoli is a district in the state of Uttarakhand, formerly known as Uttaranchal.

  1. Identity the wrong match of the following:

(a) Arunachal Pradesh-Siang
(b) Assam-Morigaon
(c) Meghalaya-Roibhoi
(d) Nagaland-Chhimtuipui

Option (d) Nagaland-Chhimtuipui
Explanation: Chhimtuipui is not associated with Nagaland; it is a river in Mizoram.

  1. Blind Valleys are found in

(a) Karst Region
(b) Glaciated Region
(c) Desert
(d) Deltas

Option (a) Karst Region
Explanation: Blind valleys are typically found in karst regions where underground drainage occurs.

  1. Pompas grassland are situated in parts of-

(a) Brazil
(b) Argentina
(c) Peru
(d) Canada

Option(b) Argentina
Explanation: The Pampas grasslands are located primarily in Argentina.

  1. In which region (country) was the first oil well drilled in 18592

(a) Leningrade in Russia
(b) Digboi in India
(c) Titusvile in USA
(d) Abadan in Middle East

Option (c) Titusville in USA
Explanation: The first commercial oil well was drilled in Titusville, Pennsylvania, USA, in 1859.

  1. Which of the types of coal has the highest heating capacity?

(a) Bituminus
(b) Lignite
(c) Anthracite
(d) Peat

Option (c) Anthracite
Explanation: Anthracite coal has the highest carbon content and heating capacity compared to other coal types.

  1. Rocks are classified on the basis of what characteristics?

(a) origin
(b) Composition
(c) Texture
(d) Density

Option (a) origin
Explanation: Rocks are mainly classified based on their origin: igneous, sedimentary, and metamorphic.

  1. Ocean currents are primarily caused by

(a) Difference in temperature
(b) Wind blowing over the sea surface
(c) Irregular shape of the continents
(d) Difference in salinity

Option(b) Wind blowing over the sea surface
Explanation: Wind is the primary driver of ocean currents, influencing their direction and speed.

  1. The Strait that connects Mediterranean Sea with Atlantic Ocean is

(a) Hormuz Strait
(b) Berring Strait
(c) Dover Strait
(d) Gibraltar Strait

Option(d) Gibraltar Strait
Explanation: The Strait of Gibraltar connects the Mediterranean Sea to the Atlantic Ocean.

  1. Which one of the following is not a country of west coast of Africa?

(a) Liberia
(b) Angola
(c) Cameroon
(d) Kenya

Option(d) Kenya
Explanation: Kenya is located on the east coast of Africa, while the others are on the west coast.

  1. The North Atlantic Ocean route if very busy with heavy traffic because

(a) It is open to all weather and is the safest
(b) It is the oldest route known to man
(c) It connects two industrially advanced regions of the world
(d) The gulf stream helps the movement of ships thereby reducing the cost.

Option (c) It connects two industrially advanced regions of the world
Explanation: The North Atlantic route connects North America and Europe, both industrially advanced areas.

  1. Emu the largest running bird after the Ostrich is found in

(a) South America
(b) South Africa
(c) New Zealand
(d) Australia

Option(d) Australia
Explanation: Emus are native to Australia, where they roam freely in various habitats.

  1. The drainage that separates the Meghalaya plateau from the Barail range is

(a) Kiling
(b) Doyang
(c) Lubha
(d) Digaru

Option (a) Kiling
Explanation: The Kiling River separates the Meghalaya plateau from the Barail Range.

  1. The Inter-State boundary between Assam and Tripura is marked by a river called

(a) Dhalaswari
(b) Longai
(c) Kuchiara
(d) Sonai

Option (b) Longai
Explanation: The Longai River serves as part of the boundary between Assam and Tripura.

  1. The Singhasion peak, the highest pan of Assam is located on

(a) Nilachal Hills
(b) Barail Range
(c) Agyathuri Hill
(d) Rengma Hills

Option(b) Barail Range
Explanation: Singhasion Peak is part of the Barail Range in Assam.

  1. The Tribe of Assam having largest size of population next to the Bodo’s is

(a) the Karbis
(b) the Dimasas
(c) the Mising
(d) the Rabhe

Option (c) the Mising
Explanation: The Mising tribe has a significant population in Assam after the Bodos.

  1. In respect of sediment carriage the rank of the Brahmaputra river among the rivers of the world is

(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Fifth

Option(b) Second
Explanation: The Brahmaputra River is ranked second in the world for sediment transport.

  1. The proposed Ranganadi projects is likely to benefit

(a) Nagaland and Manipur
(b) Arunachal Pradesh and Nagaland
(c) Tripura and Mizoram
(d) Assam and Arunachal Pradesh

Option (d) Assam and Arunachal Pradesh
Explanation: The Ranganadi project is aimed at benefiting both Assam and Arunachal Pradesh.

  1. The only phosphatic fertilizer plant of North- East India is located in

(a) Tuli in Nagaland
(b) Nongpo in Meghalaya
(c) Namrup in Assam
(d) Chandrapur in Assam

Option (b) Nongpo in Meghalaya
Explanation: Nongpo is home to the only phosphatic fertilizer plant in the North-East.

105 . The Ahoms who entered into Assam (eastwhile) established their capital

(a) Charaideo
(c) Namti
(b) Rangpur
(d) Nazirakhat

Option (a) Charaideo
Explanation: Charaideo was established as the capital by the Ahoms upon their arrival in Assam.

  1. In respect of potato production among the North-Eastern States of India the first and the second ranks are occupied by Assam and Meghalaya, Which of the following States ranks third?

(a) Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Manipur
(c) Nagaland
(d) Tripura

Option(b) Manipur
Explanation: Manipur ranks third in potato production among the North-Eastern States.

  1. Which dictrict of Assam has the longest inte- ranational boundary?

(a) Kokrajhar
(c) Karimganj
(b) Dhubri
(d) nalbari

Option (b) Dhubri
Explanation: Dhubri district has the longest international boundary with Bangladesh.

  1. The total number of Development Blocks in Assam is

(a) 119
(c) 219
(b) 200
(d) 180

Option(b) 200
Explanation: Assam has a total of approximately 200 Development Blocks.

  1. The annual production of finished tea in recent years in Assam is around

(a) 5 Lakh tonnes
(b) 10 lakh tonnes
(c) 20 Lakh tonnes
(d) 50 lakh tonnes

Option(b) 10 lakh tonnes
Explanation: Assam's tea production is around 10 lakh tonnes annually.

  1. The first President of India to be elected unopposed was

(a) S. Radhakrishnan
(b) Dr.Rajendra Prasad
(c) N. Sanjiva Reddi
(d) V. V. Giri

Option(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Explanation: Dr. Rajendra Prasad was the first President of India elected unopposed.

  1. In which year the Government if India constituted the Minorities Commission to provide institutional safe guards for the minorities?

(a) 1968
(c) 1988
(b) 1978
(d) 1998

Option (a) 1978
Explanation: The Minorities Commission was constituted in 1978.

  1. The Constituent Assembly was set up according to the proposal of the

(a) Crippa Mission Plan
(b) Cabinet Mission Plan
(c) Wavell Plan
(d) Mountbatten plan

Option (b) Cabinet Mission Plan
Explanation: The Cabinet Mission Plan proposed the establishment of the Constituent Assembly.

  1. The conditional of President’s office to laid down in Article

(a) 57 of the Constitution
(b) 58 of the Constitution
(c) 59 of the Constitution
(d) 60 of the Constitution

Option (c) 59 of the Constitution
Explanation: Article 59 outlines the conditions of the President's office.

  1. The power to nominet 12 members to the Rajya Sabha is laid down in Article

(a) 79 of the Constitution
(b) 80 of the Constitution
(c) 81 of the Constitution
(d) 82 of the Constitution.

Option (b) 80 of the Constitution
Explanation: Article 80 of the Constitution deals with the nomination of members to the Rajya Sabha.

  1. The Sarkaria Commission was appointed during the administration of the Prime Minister

(a) V. P. Singh
(b) Indira Gandhi
(c) Narasimha Rao
(d) Rajib Gandhi

Option (c) Narasimha Rao
Explanation: The Sarkaria Commission was appointed during Narasimha Rao's tenure as Prime Minister.

  1. Reservation of seats for schedules Caste and Scheduled Tribes is dealt with in Part

(a) XII of the Constitution
(b) XIII of the Constitution
(c) XIV of the Constitution

Option (a) XII of the Constitution
Explanation: Part XII of the Constitution addresses the reservation of seats for SCs and STs.

  1. Equality before law and equal protection of law is dealt with the Article

(a) 13 of the Constitution
(b) 14 of the Constitution
(c) 15 of the Constitution

Option (b) 14 of the Constitution
Explanation: Article 14 guarantees equality before the law and equal protection of the laws.

  1. Which one of the following deals with the Panchayats?

(a) Part VII of the Constitution
(b) Part IX of the Constitution
(c) Part IX (A) of the Constitution
(d) Part X of the Constitution

Option(b) Part IX of the Constitution
Explanation: Part IX of the Constitution pertains to the Panchayati Raj system.

  1. Which one of the following is not correct?

(a) Directive Principles aim at economic reconstruction
(b) Directive Principles aim at establishment of welfare State
(c) Directive Principles aim at separation of Executive from Judiciary
(d) Directive Principles aim at safe guarding the freedom of speech and expression

Option(c) Directive Principles aim at separation of Executive from Judiciary
Explanation: Directive Principles are aimed at establishing a welfare state, not specifically separating the Executive from the Judiciary.

  1. Admission of Union Territories is death with in

(a) Part VIII of the Constitution
(b) Part IX of the Constitution
(c) Part X of the Constitution
(d) Part XI of the Constitution

Option (a) Part VIII of the Constitution
Explanation: Part VIII of the Constitution discusses the admission of Union Territories.

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