APSC CCE Prelims GS 2018 Question Paper With Answers

Article 14 Guarantees to all persons equality before the law and equal protection of the laws.

42nd Constitutional Amendment Originally, the Indian constitution did not provide any formal list of duties for its citizens. But through the 42nd Constitutional Amendment, in 1976, fundamental duties were added to the Indian Constitution.

Governor of the State Appointments of persons to be, and the posting and promotion of, district judges in any State shall be made by the Governor of the State in consultation with the High Court exercising jurisdiction in relation to such State.

The correct answer is (D) Shiromani Akali Dal. It was founded in 1920, making it the only one among the listed parties that was formed prior to India's Independence. The DMK and AIADMK were established after Independence, and the Asom Gana Parishad was founded in 1985.

The correct answer is (D) one of the above. All the options listed—three-tier structure, direct election, and reservation of seats—are actually features of the Panchayati Raj system in India.

The correct answer is (D) 1971The North-Eastern Areas (Reorganization) Act was passed in 1971. This act led to the creation of the Union Territory of Meghalaya and the formation of other states in the northeastern region of India.

In India, the Right to Information (RTI) Act came into force on October 12, 2005.

The correct answer is option (B) 1/3.In the Gram Panchayat, one-third (33.33%) of the seats are reserved for women, including the seats reserved for the Chairperson. This provision aims to enhance women's participation in local governance.

Article 356 of the Indian Constitution gives authority to impose central rule (President's Rule) if there has been a failure of the constitutional machinery in any state of India.

The correct answer is (B) Presidential. India follows a Parliamentary system of governance, while a Presidential system is characterized by a separation of powers between the executive and legislative branches, which is not the case in India. The other options—democratic, republic, and federal—are indeed features of the Indian Constitution.

The correct answer is (D) the Executive is responsible to the Legislature. This feature establishes the parliamentary system, where the executive (the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers) is accountable to the legislature (Parliament), particularly to the Lok Sabha.

The correct answer is (B) 21 (A). Article 21(A) of the Indian Constitution states that the right to education is a fundamental right for children aged 6 to 14 years.

The correct answer is (B) Sixth Schedule. The Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution provides for the administration of tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. It includes provisions for the establishment of Autonomous District Councils for the governance and administration of these areas.

The correct answer is (D) All of them. The Council of Ministers includes Cabinet Ministers, State Ministers, and Deputy Ministers, all of whom assist in the administration of the government.

The correct answer is (B) Opium. In the 17th century, principal items of export from India included spices like pepper, ivory, and sugar. Opium became a significant export later, particularly in the 19th century, during British colonial rule.

The correct answer is (A) Bal Gangadhar Tilak. He, along with Annie Besant, played a significant role in founding the Home Rule League in September 1916 to promote self-rule for India within the British Empire.

The correct answer is (A) 1931. The Gandhi-Irwin Pact was signed on March 5, 1931, and it marked an agreement between Mahatma Gandhi and the then Viceroy of India, Lord Irwin.

The correct answer is (A) Bhaskar Varman. The Hayungthal Copper Plate is associated with Bhaskar Varman, a ruler of ancient Kamarupa in Assam.

The correct answer is (A) Brahmapala. Brahmapala is considered the founder of the Pala Dynasty, which ruled over parts of Bengal and Bihar from the 8th to the 12th centuries.

The correct answer is (C) Norway. Norway is famously known as the Land of the Midnight Sun due to the phenomenon where the sun remains visible at midnight during the summer months, particularly in the northern parts of the country.

The correct answer is (A) 200 nautical miles. The Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) extends up to 200 nautical miles from the baseline, granting a coastal state rights to explore and use marine resources in that area.

The correct answer is (C) Mahi. The Mahi River flows westward and empties into the Arabian Sea, whereas the other rivers listed (North Pennar, Subarnarekha, and Vaigai) flow into the Bay of Bengal.

The correct answer is (A) Dhubri. According to the 2011 Census, Dhubri district in Assam ranks first in terms of population density.

The correct answer is (B) Bornadi. Bornadi Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Udalguri district, Assam.

The correct answer is (A) Bamboo-drip irrigation. The Apatanis of Arunachal Pradesh are known for their unique bamboo-drip irrigatio

The correct answer is (C) Namrup Thermal Station Power. The Namrup Thermal Power Station is managed by the North Eastern Electric Power Corporation (NEEPCO).

The correct answer is (A) Agriculture. Agriculture is the major contributor to the national income of India within the primary sector

The correct answer is (A) Bengal. The Zamindari system was first introduced in Bengal during the British colonial period through the Permanent Settlement of 1793.

The correct answer is (C) 5th largest economy. As of the latest data, India is ranked as the 5th largest economy in the world in terms of nominal GDP.

The correct answer is (C) heavy industries. The Second Five-Year Plan, launched in 1956, emphasized substantial investment in heavy industries to accelerate industrialization in India.

The correct option is (A) Harrod-Domar
Explanation: The First Five-Year Plan in India (1951-1956) was based on the Harrod-Domar model of economic growth. This model, developed by Roy Harrod and Evsey Domar, emphasizes the role of savings and investment in promoting economic growth. The Harrod-Domar model focuses on the relationship between savings, investment, and economic growth. It suggests that economic growth is determined by the rate of savings and the capital-output ratio. The First Five-Year Plan in India aimed to achieve rapid industrialization and economic growth through heavy investment in infrastructure, industry, and agriculture. The plan's emphasis on savings, investment, and capital formation was consistent with the Harrod-Domar model.

The objective that was never part of the Five-Year Plans in India is (D) To reduce immigration.

The odd one out is: (D) Micro Units Development and Refinance (MUDRA) The first three options (A, B, and C) are regulatory authorities in India, while MUDRA is primarily a financial institution focused on providing funding and support to micro and small enterprises.

The entity responsible for the preparation of National Accounts that includes GDP in India is (A) National Accounts Division of Central Statistical Office.

Here are the statuses of the statements: (A) False: The last Chairperson of the Planning Commission of India was Dr. Montek Singh Ahluwalia. Dr. Manmohan Singh was the Prime Minister during that time. (B) False: Arvind Subramanian was the Chief Economic Adviser until 2018. The current chief economic adviser is Dr. V. Anantha Nageswaran. (C) True: Amitabh Kant is the current CEO of the NITI Aayog. (D) False: The current Chairman of SEBI is Ajay Tyagi, not V. K. Sinha. So, only statement (C) is true.

As per the 2011 Census, the state that showed a negative decadal growth rate of population is (A) Sikkim.

In India, any tax on supply of goods or services or both except taxes on supply of the alcoholic liquor for human consumption is called (B) goods and services tax (GST).

The final approval to the Five-Year Plans in India was given by (B) The President of India.

The correct answer is: (C) 2012-2017 The 12th Five-Year Plan in India covered the period from 2012 to 2017.

The Deputy Chairperson of the First Five-Year Plan was (B) V. T. Krishnamachari.

NITI Aayog has prepared the First Three-Year Action Agenda for the period of (C) 2017-18 to 2019-20.

The option that is not a sustainable component of the Sustainable Development Goals (SDG) being coordinated by the NITI Aayog is (D) Nuclear Non-Proliferation.

The Green Revolution was introduced in India during the (B) Third Five-Year Plan.

If we follow the given substitutions, we sleep at (B) sunshine, since night is called sunshine.

The answer with the most fitting option would be option (B). To decode the word READER based on the provided patterns: 1. MINERAL is coded as 'QRSTUVW': - M → Q - I → R - N → S - E → T - R → U - A → V - L → W Each letter appears to be shifted forward in the alphabet. 2. SOUND is coded as 'ABCSD': - S → A - O → B - U → C - N → S - D → D Here, S is shifted back to A. Now, let's analyze READER: - R → T (shifted forward by 2) - E → D (shifted backward by 1) - A → U (shifted forward by 20) - D → V (shifted forward by 18) - E → T (shifted forward by 19) - R → U (shifted forward by 20) Applying this coding pattern: - R → T - E → D - A → U - D → V - E → T - R → U Thus, READER is coded as TDUVUT. However, this doesn't directly match any of the options provided. It seems there might be inconsistencies in the logic or provided codes. Given the options, it looks like the answer might be (B) UTVDTU, considering some possible patterns in shifting. But the closest analysis concludes it should be TDUVUT based on transformations. UTVDTU.

The answer is (A) Father. Arun said, This girl is the wife of the grandson of my mother. - The grandson of my mother refers to Arun's son. - Therefore, the girl is the wife of Arun's son. This makes Arun the father of the girl. So, the answer is (A) Father.

The answer is (A) P. To determine who is the tallest among P, Q, R, and S based on the information given: 1. P is taller than Q (P > Q). 2. R is shorter than P (R < P). 3. S is taller than 7 but shorter than Q (7 < S < Q). From this information, we can summarize: - Since P is taller than Q, and S is shorter than Q, P is taller than S. - R is shorter than P, so R is also shorter than Q and S. Given that P is the only one we know to be taller than Q, and thus taller than S and R, we conclude that P is the tallest. So, the answer is (A) P.

The answer is (C) 90. To find how many times the digit '1' appears in the tens place from the numbers 100 to 1000, we can analyze the range: The tens place will have '1' in the following ranges: - From 110 to 119 - From 210 to 219 - From 310 to 319 - From 410 to 419 - From 510 to 519 - From 610 to 619 - From 710 to 719 - From 810 to 819 - From 910 to 919 In each of these ranges, there are **10 numbers** where '1' is in the tens place (e.g., 110, 111, 112, ..., 119). Since there are 9 such ranges (110-119, 210-219, etc.), the total count is: 9 ranges × 10 occurrences per range = 90 times. Thus, the answer is (C) 90.

The correct option is (C) 22
Explanation: Since the month begins on a Saturday and has 30 days, the Saturdays in the month are: 1st, 8th, 15th, 22nd, and 29th Given that the second and fourth Saturdays are holidays: 8th and 22nd are holidays Additionally, all Sundays are holidays: 3rd, 10th, 17th, 24th are holidays Now, let's count the working days: 1. 1st, 2nd, 3rd is a Sunday so not a working day, 4th, 5th, 6th, 7th, 2. 8th is a holiday, 9th, 10th is a Sunday so not a working day, 11th, 12th, 13th, 14th, 3. 15th, 16th, 17th is a Sunday so not a working day, 18th, 19th, 20th, 21st, 4. 22nd is a holiday, 23rd, 24th is a Sunday so not a working day, 25th, 26th, 27th, 28th, 5. 29th, 30th Working days = 22

The answer is (A) 5, 6, 2, 3, 4, 1 To arrange the words in a meaningful sequence regarding the process of hiring, we can break down the steps: 1. Advertisement (5) - The job is advertised. 2. Application (6) - Candidates submit their applications. 3. **Interview** (2) - Shortlisted candidates are interviewed. 4. Selection(3) - Candidates are selected based on the interview. 5. Appointment (4) - The selected candidate is appointed. 6. Probation(1) - The appointed candidate undergoes a probation period. So the correct sequence is: 5, 6, 2, 3, 4, 1. Thus, the answer is (A) 5, 6, 2, 3, 4, 1.

The answer is (D) 75% . To find the percentage of the population that is literate, we first need to determine the number of literate adults and children based on the given ratios and percentages. 1. Define the population: - Let the number of adults be (2x) and the number of children be (3x). 2. Determine the number of illiterate adults: - If 40% of adults are illiterate, then 60% are literate. - Literate adults = (60% ext{ of } 2x = 0.6 imes 2x = 1.2x). 3. Determine the number of literate children: - If 85% of children are literate, then 15% are illiterate. - Literate children = (85% ext{ of } 3x = 0.85 imes 3x = 2.55x). 4. Calculate the total literate population: - Total literate individuals = Literate adults + Literate children - Total literate = (1.2x + 2.55x = 3.75x). 5. Calculate the total population: - Total population = Adults + Children = (2x + 3x = 5x). 6. Calculate the percentage of the population that is literate: - Percentage of literate individuals = (rac{ ext{Total literate}}{ ext{Total population}} imes 100) - Percentage of literate = (rac{3.75x}{5x} imes 100 = rac{3.75}{5} imes 100 = 75%). Thus, the percentage of the population that is literate is 75%. The answer is (D) 75%.

A hill will always have (D) height. While hills may have trees, animals, or water, height is the defining characteristic of a hill.

the answer is (B) 57600.

Calcium carbide ripens mangoes primarily by: (B) It reacts with moisture and releases ethyne. When calcium carbide comes into contact with moisture, it produces acetylene (ethyne), which is a gas that promotes the ripening process in fruits, including mangoes.

The option that reflects back more sunlight compared to the other three is: (C) Land covered with fresh snow.Fresh snow has a high albedo, meaning it reflects a significant portion of sunlight, often more than 80-90%. In contrast, sand deserts, paddy cropland, and prairie land have lower albedo values.

The correct answer is: (D) All of the above. All three options—Rhizobium, Azobacter, and blue-green algae—are considered biofertilizers. They help improve soil fertility and enhance plant growth by fixing nitrogen or promoting nutrient availability.

The country that approved the medical and therapeutic use of cannabis and its derivatives on 19th October 2017 is: (C) Pakistan.

Vermi composting is done by: (C) worms. Specifically, earthworms are used in vermicomposting to decompose organic waste and produce nutrient-rich compost.

The group of organisms that converts light into food is called: (A) autotrophs. Autotrophs, such as plants, use photosynthesis to convert light energy into chemical energy in the form of food.

India's first all-weather tracked-chassis QR-SAM stands for: (A) Quick Reaction Surface-to-Air Missile.

The lead agency for the BIMSTEC DMEx-2017 was: (A) The National Response Force Disaster.

The Indian cartoonist who won the International Award in the best caricature category at the World Press Cartoon Awards 2018 is: (D) Satish Acharya.

In the context of JICA and the NE Region, JICF stands for: (B) Japan-India Coordination Forum for development of North-Eastern Region.

The country that celebrated the 25th year of diplomatic ties with India in 2017 is: (C) Israel.

India's first e-court opened in: (B) Mysuru.

SBI has launched a new initiative to facilitate corporates looking to invest in India called: (B) Japan Desk.

In the 103rd Indian Science Congress, Prime Minister Narendra Modi coined the five Es as: (B) Economy, Environment, Energy, Empathy and Equity.

The Indian and Chinese armies launched their 5th annual anti-terrorism exercise in: (C) Kunming.

The social networking giant that has partnered with the National Commission for Women (NCW) to offer a digital literacy programme for women is: (B) Facebook.

The GDP growth of India forecast for 2018, as per the latest Moody's Investors Service Report, is: (B) 7.6 %

The scholar believed to have written the Panchatantra stories is: (A) Vishnu Sharma.

The Hornbill Festival of Nagaland is celebrated in: (B) Kisama Kisama is the main venue for this annual festival, which showcases the rich cultural heritage of the various tribes of Nagaland.

The artist who made the famous painting 'Guernica' in 1937 is: (B) Pablo Picasso.

Lai Haraoba is an important festival of: (C) Manipur.

The largest Buddhist monastery in India is located in (D) Tawang. The Tawang Monastery, situated in Arunachal Pradesh, is one of the largest in the country and a significant pilgrimage site.

Ima Keithel is the largest (D) all-women market in Manipur. It is a unique market run entirely by women and is a significant cultural and economic hub in the region.

The Indian actor who is also a recipient of the Jnanpith Award in literature is (A) Girish Karnad. He was an accomplished playwright, actor, and director, recognized for his contributions to Indian literature and theater.

The Cheraw dance is a dance form of (D) Mizoram. It is also known as the bamboo dance and is performed using pairs of bamboo poles.

Therukoothu is an art form of (C) Tamil Nadu. It is a traditional street theater that combines music, dance, and drama, often performed during festivals and special occasions.

The book We, the People was written by Nani Palkhivala.

The first recipient of the Sahitya Akademi Award for English Literature was (B) R. K. Narayan. He received the award in 1958 for his novel The Guide.

The option that is not a poetic tradition is (B) The Occult. The Epic, The Tragic, and The Comic are all recognized poetic traditions or forms.

Renaissance is an*(A) Italian word. It means rebirth and refers to the cultural movement that began in Italy in the 14th century and spread across Europe.

The Room on the Roof was written by (A) Ruskin Bond. It is a semi-autobiographical novel that reflects his experiences growing up in India.

There are (B) 1000 'Ghosas' in the Nama Ghosa. This text is an important work in the tradition of Assamese literature and is attributed to the saint Srimanta Sankardev.

Sankardeva used (B) Brajavali for composing Ankia Nat. Brajavali is a hybrid language that combines elements of Assamese and other regional languages, and it is commonly used in his devotional plays.

The first Ankia Nat written by Sankardeva was (A) Patniprasad. This play is significant in Assamese literature and showcases his innovative approach to drama and devotion.

The father of Assamese prose is known to be (A) Ratnakar Kandali. He is credited with laying the foundation for prose writing in Assamese literature.

The growth and development of the 'Charit Puthi' witnessed significant progress in the (C) 16th century. This genre of Assamese literature focuses on biographical narratives and historical accounts.

The 'Buranji' written by Ratna Kandali and Arjun Das Bairagee was the (C) Axom Buranji. This historical text chronicles the history of Assam and its people.

The first editor of Jonaki was (A) Lakshminath Bezbaruah. Jonaki was a significant literary magazine in Assamese literature, and Bezbaruah played a key role in its development.

The novel Astarag is authored by (C) Homen Borgohain. It is a notable work in Assamese literature.

Aahar, an Assamese drama written by Arun Sharma, is a (A) social drama. It addresses social issues and themes relevant to society.

The first recipient of the Assam Valley Literary Award was (A) Homen Borgohain. He is a prominent figure in Assamese literature and has made significant contributions to the field.

The writer from Assam who was awarded the 'Padma Shri' in 2018 is (B) Arupa Patangia. She is recognized for her contributions to Assamese literature.