APSC Inspector of Factories General Studies (2024) Question Paper with Answers

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DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

TEST BOOKLET

(GENERAL STUDIES )

Time Allowed: 2 Hours Full Marks: 100

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Example:

Suppose the following question is asked:

The capital of Bangladesh is

(A) Chennai
(B) London
(C) Dhaka
(D) Dhubri

You will have four alternatives in the Answer-Sheet for your response corresponding to each question Test Booklet as below: of the

In the above illustration, if your chosen response is alternative (C), Le., Dhaka, then the same should be marked on the Answer-Sheet by blackening the relevant circle with a Black/Blue ballpoint pen only as below:

The example shown above is the only correct method of answering.

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N.B. There will be negative marking @ 0-25 per 1 (one) mark against each wrong answer.

  1. Consider the following statements:

(i) The CAG (Comptroller and Auditor General of India) is appointed by the Prime Minister of India.
(ii) The CAG holds his office till the pleasure of the President.
(iii) The term of the office of the CAG is six years from the date on which he assumes office.
(iv) He is disqualified for any Government retirement. office after

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i) and (iv)

The correct option is (C) (iii) and (iv)
Explanation The CAG has a fixed tenure of six years or until the age of 65, whichever is earlier, and is disqualified from holding any further government office after retirement to maintain independence and impartiality.

  1. Consider the following statements:

(i) Lord Clement Attlee, the British Prime Minister, made a declara- tion on 15th of March, 1946 that a British Cabinet Mission would visit India to make recommendations about consti- tutional reforms to introduced in India. be
(ii) The Cabinet Mission comprised of Lord Mountbatten, Stafford Cripps and A. V. Alexander.
(iii) The Muslim League did not accept the Cabinet Mission Plan.
(iv) The Indian National Congress partially accepted the plan.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(A) (i) and (ii) only
(B) (i) and (iv) only
(C) (ii) and (iii) only
(D) All of the above

The correct option is (B) (i) and (iv) only
Explanation
Lord Clement Attlee announced the Cabinet Mission on 15th March 1946, and the Indian National Congress partially accepted its plan, while the Muslim League initially accepted but later rejected it.

  1. In which case, the Supreme Court of India held that the Preamble is a part of the Constitution?

(A) Kesavananda Bharati Case
(B) Golaknath Case
(C) Berubari Case
(D) Minerva Mills Case

The correct option is (A) Kesavananda Bharati Case
Explanation
In the Kesavananda Bharati Case (1973), the Supreme Court of India held that the Preamble is a part of the Constitution and can be used to interpret its provisions.

  1. Which among the following is not a subject of State List of the Constitution?

(A) Public Health and Sanitation.
(B) Public Order
(C) Police
(D) Inter-State Trade and Commerce

The correct option is (D) Inter-State Trade and Commerce
Explanation
Inter-State Trade and Commerce is a subject under the Union List, as it involves matters beyond the jurisdiction of individual states, while Public Health and Sanitation, Public Order, and Police are part of the State List.

  1. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution are correctly matched?

(i) Article 253 Legislation for giving effect to international agreements
(ii) Article 259 Control of the Union over the States in certain cases
(iii) Article 275: Grants from the Union to certain States
(iv) Article 276: The President of India can constitute the Finance Commission

Select the correct answer from the given codes.

(A) (i) and (iii)
(B) (i) and (iii)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (ii) and (iv)

The correct option is (i) and (iii)
Explanation
Article 253 deals with laws for international agreements, and Article 275 provides for grants to certain states. Articles 259 and 276 are incorrectly matched with their descriptions.

  1. Which of the following is a part of the Liberal Principles of the Directive Principles of the State Policy enshrined in Part IV of the Constitution?

(A) To secure equal pay for equal work of men as well as women
(B) To provide adequate means of livelihood to all citizens
(C) Introduction of a uniform civil code for the country
(D) The prohibition of intoxicating drugs and drinks

The correct option is (B) To provide adequate means of livelihood to all citizens
Explanation
This is part of the liberal principles of the Directive Principles of State Policy, which aim to ensure economic welfare and equality for all citizens. The other options relate to different social and legal issues but are not specifically part of the liberal economic focus.

  1. Who administers the oath of office to the Governor of a State?

(A) The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
(B) The Chief Justice of the concerned State High Court
(C) The President of India
(D) The Chief Minister

The correct option is (B) The Chief Justice of the concerned State High Court
Explanation
The Chief Justice of the concerned State High Court administers the oath of office to the Governor of a State, or in their absence, the senior-most judge of the High Court performs this duty.

  1. Consider the following statements:

(i) The Government of India Act, 1935 introduced provincial autonomy and abolished dyarchy.
(ii) The Government of India Act, 1935 was opposed by the Indian National Congress.
(iii) Mahatma Gandhi remarked about the Act that “It was a new charter of bondage”.
(iv) The Government of India Act, 1935 led to the separation of Burma from British India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(A) (i) and (ii) only
(B) (i) and (iii) only
(C) (i), (ii) and (iv) only
(D) All of the above.

The correct option is (D) All of the above
Explanation
The Government of India Act, 1935 introduced provincial autonomy and abolished dyarchy. It was opposed by the Indian National Congress, called 'a new charter of bondage' by Mahatma Gandhi, and led to the separation of Burma from British India in 1937.

  1. Which among the following is not the location of a sacred forest?

(A) Khasi and Jaintia Hills in Meghalaya
(B) Aravalli Hills in Rajasthan
(C) Dima Hasao in Assam
(D) All of the above

The correct option is(B) Aravalli Hills in Rajasthan
Explanation
Sacred forests are commonly found in Khasi and Jaintia Hills in Meghalaya and Dima Hasao in Assam due to traditional practices. The Aravalli Hills in Rajasthan are not known for sacred forests.

  1. Which among the following major lakes of India are correctly matched with their locations?

(i) Ukai Lake : Maharashtra
(ii) Kolleru Lake : Kerala
(iii) Roopkund Lake : Uttarakhand
(iv) Badkhal : Lake Haryana

Select the correct answer from the given codes.

(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i) and (iv)

The correct option is (C) (iii) and (iv)
Explanation
Roopkund Lake is correctly located in Uttarakhand, and Badkhal Lake is in Haryana. Ukai Lake is in Gujarat, not Maharashtra, and Kolleru Lake is in Andhra Pradesh, not Kerala.

  1. Which of the following statements about the Si-Donyi festival is correct?

(A) Si-Donyi festival is celebrated in the State of Nagaland.
(B) Si-Donyi festival is celebrated in the State of Mizoram.
(C) Si-Donyi festival is celebrated by the Karbi Community of Assam.
(D) Si-Donyi festival is dedicated to the earth and the sun.

The correct option is(D) Si-Donyi festival is dedicated to the earth and the sun.
Explanation
The Si-Donyi festival is celebrated by the Tagin tribe of Arunachal Pradesh and is dedicated to the deities of the earth (Si) and the sun (Donyi) to ensure prosperity and well-being.

  1. Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary is located in

(A) Sikkim
(B) Arunachal Pradesh.
(C) Nagaland
(D) Mizoram

The correct option is (B) Arunachal Pradesh
Explanation
Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary, also known as Pakke Tiger Reserve, is located in Arunachal Pradesh. It is known for its rich biodiversity and is home to tigers, elephants, and other wildlife species.

  1. Risa is a traditional attire of

(A) Tripura
(B) Manipur
(C) Sikkim
(D) Assam

The correct option is (A) Tripura
Explanation
Risa is a traditional attire of Tripura, worn by the indigenous tribal communities. It is often used as an upper garment or a stole and holds cultural significance in ceremonies and rituals.

  1. Consider the following statements:

(i) Hargila bird (greater adjutant) is mostly found in Assam and to a small extent in Bihar and Cambodia.
(ii) Hargila bird is a member of the stork family.
(iii) Most of the global population. of the Hargila bird is found in Assam.
(iv) It is ‘endangered’ on the IUCN’s Red List.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(A) (i) and (ii) only
(B) (ii) and (iii) only
(C) (i) and (iii) only
(D) All of the above

The correct option is (D) All of the above
Explanation
The Hargila bird (greater adjutant) is mostly found in Assam, with smaller populations in Bihar and Cambodia. It belongs to the stork family, with most of its global population residing in Assam, and it is listed as 'endangered' on the IUCN Red List.

  1. Sillimanite, which is used in automobile industries, is found in which of the following districts of Assam?

(A) Dibrugarh
(B) Tinsukia
(C) Karbi Anglong
(D) Baksa

The correct option is (C) Karbi Anglong
Explanation
Sillimanite, a mineral used in automobile and refractory industries, is found in the Karbi Anglong district of Assam. This region is known for its rich mineral deposits.

  1. Which of the following tributaries of the river Brahmaputra is not in the north bank of the river?

(A) Subansiri
(B) Pagladiya
(C) Manas
(D) Digaru

The correct option is (B) Pagladiya
Explanation
The Pagladiya river is a tributary of the Brahmaputra but it is located on the south bank, not the north bank of the river. The other rivers mentioned, Subansiri, Manas, and Digaru, are tributaries on the north bank of the Brahmaputra.

  1. Consider the following statements:

(i) The Mahalwari System of land revenue was introduced by Thomas Munro and was recommended by Charles Reed.
(ii) In the Mahalwari System, along with the village communities, the landlords were jointly responsible for the payment of taxes.
(iii) In the Mahalwari System, a direct settlement was made between the Government and the Ryot (cultivator).
(iv) The Mahalwari System was introduced in the Gangetic Valley, Uttar Pradesh, North- West Frontier Province, parts of Central India and Punjab.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(A) (i) and (iii)
(B) (ii) and (iv)
(C) (iii) and (iv)
(D) None of the above

The correct option is (D) None of the above
Explanation
The Mahalwari System was introduced by Holt Mackenzie, not Thomas Munro.
The system involved landlords and village communities, but the settlement was made with the landlords, not directly with the cultivators.
The system was introduced in certain regions, but not in the North-West Frontier Province.

  1. Which of the following was a significant step towards reinforcing ‘Hindu-Muslim’ unity in the Pre- Independence India?

(A) Swadeshi Movement
(B) Home Rule Movement
(C) Lucknow Pact
(D) August Declaration

The correct option is(C) Lucknow Pact
Explanation
The Lucknow Pact (1916) was a significant agreement between the Indian National Congress and the All-India Muslim League, promoting Hindu-Muslim unity. It aimed to present a united front to the British for constitutional reforms.

  1. Which Ahom King invited Krishnaram Bhattacharya from Nadia District in Bengal, promising the care of the Kamakhya Temple to him?

(A) Swargadeo Kamaleswar Singha
(B) Swargadeo Rudra Singha
(C) Swargadeo Gadadhar Singha
(D) Swargadeo Udayaditya Singha

The correct option is(C) Swargadeo Gadadhar Singha
Explanation
Swargadeo Gadadhar Singha, an Ahom king, invited Krishnaram Bhattacharya from Bengal and entrusted him with the care of the Kamakhya Temple. This was part of his efforts to revive and restore the temple's religious significance.

  1. Which of the following Indian social reformers contributed in persuading the British Government to introduce the Native Marriage Act of 1872?

(A) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(B) Keshab Chandra Sen
(C) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
(D) Swami Dayananda Saraswati

The correct option is(B) Keshab Chandra Sen
Explanation
Keshab Chandra Sen played a pivotal role in persuading the British Government to enact the Native Marriage Act of 1872. The Act sought to reform Hindu marriage practices, including prohibiting child marriage and promoting widow remarriage.

  1. Identify the correct chronological sequence of the Gandhian era movements.

(A) Champaran Campaign- Non-Cooperation and Khilafat Movement Quit India Movement Civil Disobedience Movement
(B) Civil Disobedience Movement-Champaran Campaign- Quit India Movement-Non-Coopeгаtion and Khilafat Movement.
(C) Champaran Campaign-Non- Cooperation and Khilafat Movement Civil Disobedience Movement Quit India Movement
(D) Non-Cooperation and Khilafat Movement-Champaran Campaign-Quit India Movement-Civil Disobedience Movement

The correct option is(C) Champaran Campaign- Non-Cooperation and Khilafat Movement- Civil Disobedience Movement- Quit India Movement
Explanation
The sequence begins with the Champaran Campaign (1917), Gandhi's first movement in India, followed by the Non-Cooperation and Khilafat Movement (1920-22). Next came the Civil Disobedience Movement (1930) and finally the Quit India Movement (1942), demanding British withdrawal from India.

  1. E. V. Ramasamy, commonly known as Periyar, was the head of Self- Respect Movement in which State?

(A) Kerala
(B) Karnataka
(C) Andhra Pradesh
(D) Tamil Nadu

The correct option is (D) Tamil Nadu
Explanation
E. V. Ramasamy, known as Periyar, led the Self-Respect Movement in Tamil Nadu. The movement aimed to promote social equality, self-respect, and oppose caste discrimination.

  1. Consider the following statements:

(i) Ariyannur Kudakkallu is an important archaeological site of Megalith culture in Karnataka.
(ii) Ariyannur Kudakkallu is an important archaeological site of Megalith culture in Kerala.
(iii) Megalith is the combination of Greek words mega (great) and lithos (stone).
(iv) In 1947, archaeologist R. E. M. Wheeler excavated Brahmagiri situated in Chitradurga district of Karnataka.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (ii) and (iii) only
(C) (iii) and (iv) only
(D) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

The correct option is (D) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Explanation
Ariyannur Kudakkallu is a megalithic site in Kerala, not Karnataka. The term 'megalith' comes from the Greek words 'mega' (great) and 'lithos' (stone). In 1947, R. E. M. Wheeler excavated Brahmagiri in Karnataka, uncovering important archaeological evidence.

  1. Who was the first Indian in the Council of the Governor-General in British India?

(A) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(B) Satyendra Prasanna Sinha
(C) Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviya
(D) Dadabhai Naoroji

The correct option is(B) Satyendra Prasanna Sinha
Explanation
Satyendra Prasanna Sinha was the first Indian to join the Council of the Governor-General of British India in 1909. He was appointed as the Advocate General of Bengal and later became a member of the Governor-General's Executive Council.

  1. The project RE-HAB is related to

(A) artificial flood mitigation
(B) sustainable solution to human- elephant conflicts
(C) rehabilitation of refugees from Burma
(D) rehabilitation of chakma refugees

The correct option is(B) sustainable solution to human-elephant conflicts
Explanation
The RE-HAB (Reducing Human-Elephant Conflict) project focuses on finding sustainable solutions to the issue of human-elephant conflict, particularly in regions where elephants frequently come into contact with human populations.

  1. Consider the following statements:

(i) The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) is headquartered in Berlin, Germany.
(ii) The IUCN was founded in 1948
(iii) The IUCN prepares the list of threatened species.
(iv) The Himalayan Wolf has been assessed for the first time in the IUCN’s Red List and categorised as ‘vulnerable’.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(A) (i) and (ii) only
(B) (ii) and (iii) only
(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only
(D) All of the above

The correct option isb(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only
Explanation
The IUCN was founded in 1948, not in Berlin. Its headquarters is in Gland, Switzerland.
The IUCN is responsible for preparing the Red List of threatened species.
The Himalayan Wolf has been assessed for the first time and categorized as 'vulnerable' on the IUCN Red List.

  1. Which of the following languages is a medium of instruction in the foundational stage education in Assam? of school

(A) Munda
(B) Nagamese
(C) Santhali
(D) Dimasa

The correct option is(B) Nagamese
Explanation
In Assam, Nagamese is used as a medium of instruction in the foundational stage of school education, particularly in areas with a significant population of Nagamese-speaking communities. It is a creole language widely used for communication across different ethnic groups in Assam.

  1. Which of the following gases contributes to the maximum of global warming?

(A) Nitrous oxide
(B) Chlorofluorocarbon
(C) Carbon dioxide
(D) Methane

The correct option is(C) Carbon dioxide
Explanation
Carbon dioxide (CO2) is the gas that contributes the most to global warming, primarily due to its high concentration in the atmosphere and its long-term impact. It is released through activities like burning fossil fuels, deforestation, and industrial processes.

  1. One of the two new species recently identified in the Kaziranga National Park and Tiger Reserve was the Binturong, which is a

(A) bearcat
(B) reptile
(C) stork
(D) fish

The correct option is (A) bearcat
Explanation
The Binturong, also known as the bearcat, is a mammal recently identified in the Kaziranga National Park and Tiger Reserve. Despite its name, it is neither a bear nor a cat, but belongs to the family Viverridae.

  1. Consider the following statements:

(i) YUVIKA is the name of the Annual Youth Festival organised by the IIT, Delhi.
(ii) YUVIKA is a special programme for schoolchildren organised by the Indian Space Research Organisation.
(iii) YUVIKA is a special programme for fresh engineering graduates organised by the Indian Space Research Organisation.
(iv) The full form of YUVIKA is YUva Vigyani KAryakram.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) (i)
(B) (ii) only
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (ii) and (iv)

The correct option is(D) (ii) and (iv)
Explanation
YUVIKA is a special programme for schoolchildren, organised by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) to encourage them to take an interest in space science and technology.
The full form of YUVIKA is YUva Vigyani KAryakram, which translates to a program for young scientists.

  1. Consider the following statements:

(i) PM-DevINE is a central sector development scheme.
(ii) PM-DevINE initiative is for North-East India only.
(iii) PM-DevINE was introduced in 2022-2023.
(iv) PM-DevINE gets 100% central funding.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) (i) only
(B) (i) and (ii) only
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
(D) All of the above

The correct option is (D) All of the above
Explanation
PM-DevINE is a scheme for North-East India introduced in 2022-2023. It is a central sector scheme with 100% central funding.

  1. Which of the following statements about Dosti 16 is correct?

(A) Dosti 16 is the 16th edition of the bilateral trade talks between India and Bhutan.
(B) Dosti 16 is the 16th edition of the bilateral trade talks between India and Nepal.
(C) Dosti 16 is the 16th edition of the joint maritime exercise involving India and Bangladesh.
(D) Dosti 16 is the 16th edition of the joint maritime exercise between India, Sri Lanka and Maldives.

The correct option is (C) Dosti 16 is the 16th edition of the joint maritime exercise involving India and Bangladesh.
Explanation
Dosti 16 refers to the 16th edition of the joint maritime exercise between India and Bangladesh, aimed at enhancing cooperation in maritime security and strengthening bilateral relations.

  1. Consider the following statements:

(i) One of the principles of quantum mechanics used in quantum computational technology is quantum entanglement.
(ii) One of the principles of quantum mechanics used in quantum computational technology is Pauli’s exclusion principle.
(iii) One of the principles of quantum mechanics used in quantum computational technology is Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle.
(iv) One of the principles of quantum mechanics used in quantum computational technology is the Dirac-Frenkel variational principle.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) (i)
(B) (ii)
(C) (iii) only
(D) (iii) and (iv)

The correct option is(A) (i)
Explanation
Quantum entanglement is a fundamental principle used in quantum computational technology, enabling the creation of quantum bits (qubits) that are interconnected. The other principles listed, such as Pauli's exclusion principle, Heisenberg's uncertainty principle, and Dirac-Frenkel variational principle, are not directly used in quantum computing technology in the same way.

  1. Consider the following statements:

(i) Python is a programming language which can be used in artificial intelligence applications.
(ii) Python is a programming language which cannot be used in artificial intelligence applications.
(iii) R is a programming language which can be used in artificial intelligence applications.
(iv) R is a programming language which cannot be used in artificial intelligence applications.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(A) (i) and (iv)
(B) (i) and (iii)
(C) (ii) and (iv)
(D) (ii) and (iii)

The correct option is(B) (i) and (iii)
Explanation
Python is widely used in artificial intelligence applications due to its simplicity and the availability of powerful libraries. Similarly, R is also a programming language that can be used in artificial intelligence applications, especially in data analysis and statistical modeling.

  1. Consider the following statements:

(i) Unix is an operating system.
(ii) Unix is a programming language.
(iii) Linux is often considered a Unix-like system.
(iv) Unix was developed at Caltech

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) (i) only
(B) (ii) only
(C) (i) and (iii)
(D) (ii) and (iv)

The correct option is(C) (i) and (iii)
Explanation
Unix is an operating system, not a programming language. Linux is often considered a Unix-like system because it is inspired by Unix but is not a direct derivative. Unix was developed at AT&T Bell Labs, not Caltech.

  1. Consider the following statements:

(i) A file extension indicates the type of a computer file.
(ii) File extension bmp indicates a binary compressed file.
(iii) File extension avi means audio interchange file.
(iv) File extension avi means audio video interleave, a movie or sound file.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) (i) only
(B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (i) and (iii)
(D) (i) and (iv)

The correct option is (D) (i) and (iv).
Explanation
(i) A file extension indeed indicates the type of a computer file, helping the system and user identify its purpose.
(iv) The file extension .avi stands for Audio Video Interleave, a format for movies or sound files, while (ii) and (iii) are incorrect descriptions.

  1. Which of the following statements about the computer security parlance is correct?

(A) In computer security parlance, a white hat is a malicious virus.
(B) In computer security parlance, a white hat is a person who designs and builds firewall. restrictions for a computer network.
(C) In computer security parlance, a white hat is an ethical hacker.
(D) In computer security parlance, a white hat is a malicious hacker.

The correct option is (C) In computer security parlance, a white hat is an ethical hacker.
Explanation
A white hat is a cybersecurity expert who uses hacking skills ethically to identify and fix vulnerabilities. They help protect systems, unlike malicious hackers or viruses.

  1. Which of the following statements about Blu-ray is correct?

(A) In computer parlance, Blu-ray is a storage device.
(B) In computer parlance, Blu-ray is a security device.
(C) In computer parlance, Blu-ray is a memory device.
(D) Blu-ray is not a computer term; it is a type of marine creature.

The correct option is (A) In computer parlance, Blu-ray is a storage device.
Explanation
Blu-ray is an optical disc format used for storing high-definition video and large amounts of data. It is commonly used as a storage medium for movies and software.

  1. Which of the following is not a flavour of Linux?

(A) Ubuntu
(B) Solaris
(C) Gentoo
(D) Fedora

The correct option is (B) Solaris.
Explanation
Solaris is an operating system based on UNIX, not a Linux distribution. Ubuntu, Gentoo, and Fedora are all flavors of Linux

  1. Consider the following statements:

(i) In computer parlance, daemon is a malicious virus of enormous damaging capabilities.
(ii) In computer parlance, daemon is an invisible storage device.
(iii) In computer parlance, daemon is a process in an operating system that runs in the background.
(iv) The use of the word daemon in computer parlance was inspired by Maxwell’s demon of physics and thermodynamics.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) (i)
(B) (ii)
(C) (iii) only
(D) (iii) and (iv)

The correct option is (D) (iii) and (iv).
Explanation
(iii) A daemon is a background process in an operating system that performs tasks without direct user interaction.
(iv) The term 'daemon' was inspired by Maxwell's demon in physics, symbolizing a system that works efficiently behind the scenes.

  1. Let A be a 2 * 2 real matrix with det A = 1 and trace (A) = 3 then what is the value of trace (A ^ 2) ?

(A) 2
(B) 10
(C) 9
(D) 7

The correct option is (B) 10.
Explanation
For a 2*2 matrix A , if
trace (A) = t. and det (A) = d , the trace of A² is given by
trace(A²) = t² - 2d.
trace(A²) = 3² - 2(1) = 9 - 2 = 10.

  1. If A = [[3, – 2], [2, – 1]] then A ^ 20 equals

(A) [[41, 40], [- 40, – 39]]
(B) [[41, – 40], [40, – 39]]
(C) [[41, – 40], [- 40, – 39]]
(D) [[41, 40], [40, – 39]]

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  1. What is the sum of the series? (1/(2 * 3) + 1/(2 ^ 2 * 3)) + (1/(2 ^ 2 * 3 ^ 2) + 1/(2 ^ 3 * 3 ^ 2)) +* + (1/(2 ^ a * 3 ^ a) + 1/(2 ^ (a + 1) * 3 ^ a)) +*

(A) 3/8
(B) 3/10
(C) 3/14
(D) 3/16

The correct option is (A) 3/8.

  1. Given (a_{n}) (b_{n}) two monotonous sequence numbers and that Sigmaa_{n}b_{n} is convergent, then which of the following is true?

(A) is convergent and also Sigmaa_{n} convergent Sigmab_{n}
(B) Only Sigma*a_{n} is convergent
(C) {a_{n}} is bounded and also (b_{n}) is bounded
(D) None of the above

The correct option is (C) {a_{n}} is bounded and also {b_{n}} is bounded.

  1. Which of the following functions is uniformly continuous on (0, 1)?

(A) sin(1/x)
(B) e ^ (- 1/(x ^ 2))
(C) e ^ x * sin(pi/x)
(D) cos(x) * cos(pi/x)

The correct option is (B) e ^ (- 1/(x ^ 2)) .

  1. The principal value of (- 1) ^ ((- 2i)/pi) is

(A) e ^ 2
(B) e ^ (2i)
(C) e ^ (-2i)
(D) e ^ – 2

The correct option is (C) e ^ (-2i).

  1. The value of Re(f(z)) for f(z)= 2iz +6 overline z where z = x + iy is

(A) 6x + 2y
(B) 6x – 2y
(C) (6x)/(2y)
(D) None of the above

The correct option is (B) 6x - 2y .

  1. Find the value of I = int C zdz, where C :\ z|=1.

(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3

The correct option is (A) 0
Explanation Since the contour C is the unit circle |z| = 1, and the function f(z) = z is analytic within and on C, Cauchy's Integral Theorem states that the integral of f(z) around C is zero.

  1. If H and K are normal subgroups of G then which of the following is ?

(A) H cap K and HK are normal subgroups in G
(B) HK and HOK are normal subgroups in G
(C) HOK is normal but HK is not normal
(D) HUK is normal but HK is not normal

The correct option is (A) H ∩ K and HK are normal subgroups in G
Explanation If H and K are normal subgroups of G, then their intersection (H ∩ K) and product (HK) are also normal subgroups of G.

  1. The non-zero value of n for which the differential equation (3x * y ^ 2 + n ^ 2 * x ^ 2 * y) * dx + (n * x ^ 3 + 3x ^ 2 * y) * dy = 0 becomes exact is

(A) -3
(C) 2
(B) -2
(D) 3

The correct option is (B) -2.

  1. The integrating factor of the differential equation ((e ^ (-2sqrt(x)))/(sqrt(x)) – y/(sqrt(x))) * d/dx (y) = 1

A) e ^ (2sqrt(x))
(B) e ^ (-2sqrt(x))
(C) e ^ (sqrt(x))
(D) e ^ (- sqrt(x))

The correct option is (B)e ^ (-2sqrt(x))

  1. If x ^ 3 * y ^ 2 is an integrating factor of 6y^ 2 +axy) dx + (6xy + b * x ^ 2) * dy = 0 where a , b \in R , then

(A) 3a – 5b = 0
(B) 2a – b = 0
(C) 3a + 5b = 0
(D) 2a + b = 0

The correct option is(A) 3a - 5b = 0

  1. lim x -> 0 (tan x * log(x)) is

(A) ♾️
(B) 1
(C) 0
(D) e

The correct option is(C) 0

  1. The angle of intersection of the curves x ^ 2 = 4y and y ^ 2 = 4x is

(A) 3/4
(B) 4/3
(C) arctan(3/4)
(D) arctan(4/3)

The correct option is(C) arctan(3/4)

  1. In polar coordinates, x = r * cos theta and y = r * sin theta Then partial (x, y) partial(r, theta) is

(A) г
(B) r ^ 2
(C) r ^ 2 * sin theta
(D) r ^ 2 * cos theta

The correct option is(A) r

  1. The simple pole of f(z) = 1/(sin z – cos z) is

(Α) π
(B) pi/3
(C pi/4
(D) None of the above

The correct option is (C) pi/4

  1. The lim n infty ( 1 + 1/(2 ^ n) + 1/(3 ^ n) +*+ 1 2023^ n )^ 1/n is

(A) 1
(C) 3
(B) 2
(D) 4

The correct option is(A) 1

  1. The function | overline z |^ 2 is

(A) analytic
(B) differentiable at z = 0
(C) not analytic
(D) continuous

The correct option is (C) not analytic

  1. Let A = [[2, – 1, 3], [2, – 1, 3], [3, 2, – 1]] then the largest eigenvalue of A is

(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4

The correct option is (C) 3

  1. Let C be the set of complex numbers. Let for any z = {x, y} in C, z* overline z = z , then is equal to

(A) (0, 1)
(B) (1,0)
(C) (-1, 1)
(D) (1, 1)

The correct option is(A) (0, 1)

  1. The number of stereoisomers of D-Glucose is

(A) 26
(B) 24
(C) 12
(D) 16

The correct option is (B) 24

  1. The widely used method for the determination of protein content of meat and animal food is

(A) Mohr method.
(B) Kjeldahl method
(C) McBride method
(D) Liebig method

The correct option is (B) Kjeldahl method

  1. Which one of the following reactions is not stereospecific?

(A) S1
(B) SN2
(C) Hydrogenation with Pd/H₂
(D) Addition of halogens to ole fins

The correct option is (A) S1
Explanation S1 reactions are not stereospecific because they involve a carbocation intermediate, which can undergo rapid bond rotation, leading to a loss of stereochemical information.

  1. In examining the structure of molecules, it was discovered that the motion of the nuclei could be neglected and it was sufficient to consider the motion and the distribution of the electrons alone for a molecule. This assumption is based on

(A) Born-Oppenheimer approximation
(B) Hittorf method
(C) VSEPR theory
(D) Euler’s chain relation

The correct option is (A) Born-Oppenheimer approximation
Explanation:
The Born-Oppenheimer approximation assumes that the nuclei in a molecule move much slower than the electrons due to their significantly larger mass. Therefore, the motion of the electrons is considered independently from the nuclei, simplifying the calculation of molecular structure by focusing only on the distribution of electrons.

  1. Which of the following elements is not a component of Wood’s metal?

(A) Bismuth
(B) Lead
(C) Tin
(D) Titanium

The correct option is (D) Titanium.
Explanation:
Wood's metal is an alloy primarily composed of bismuth (Bi), lead (Pb), and tin (Sn). It is used for its low melting point, around 70°C (158°F). Titanium (Ti) is not a component of Wood's metal, making it the correct answer.

  1. The test which is not applied to identify an aldehyde or ketone is

(A) Tollens’ test
(B) Fehling’s test
(C) Baeyer’s test
(D) Benedict’s test

The correct option is (C) Baeyer’s test.
Explanation:
Tollens' test, Fehling's test, and Benedict's test are used to detect aldehydes by observing reactions like oxidation.
Baeyer’s test is for detecting unsaturation (double bonds) in compounds, like alkenes, not aldehydes or ketones.
Therefore, Baeyer’s test is not used for identifying aldehydes or ketones.

  1. The nucleophilic aromatic substitu- tion that can occur on a benzene ring is affected by the substituent group(s) present. Which one of the following is correct for such a substituent group?

(A) -CN, electron withdrawing
(B) NO2, stabilises carbanion, activates the ring
(C) -COOH, electron releasing. activates the ring
(D) R, destabilises carbonation, electron withdrawing

The correct option is (A) -CN, electron withdrawing.
Explanation:
The -CN (cyanide) group is an electron-withdrawing group, which makes the benzene ring more reactive towards nucleophilic substitution. The other groups mentioned either stabilize the ring or are electron-donating, which do not favor nucleophilic aromatic substitution as effectively as electron-withdrawing groups.

  1. To distinguish among primary secondary and tertiary alcohols, one would use which of the following experimental methods?

(A) Sandmeyer’s reaction
(B) Lucas test
(C) Tollens’ test
(D) Wittig reaction

The correct option is (B) Lucas test.
Explanation:
The Lucas test differentiates primary, secondary, and tertiary alcohols based on their reactivity with Lucas reagent. Tertiary alcohols react quickly, secondary alcohols take longer, and primary alcohols react very slowly or not at all.

  1. The coordination number of cobalt in [Co(NH3)3Cl3] is

(A) 3
(B) 6
(C) 4
(D) 1

The correct option is (B) 6.
Explanation:
In the complex { Co(NH3)3Cl3 } , the central cobalt ion is surrounded by 3 ammonia (NH3) molecules and 3 chloride (Cl—) ions. Since each ligand (whether NH3 or Cl—) coordinates with the metal ion, the coordination number of cobalt is the total number of ligands, which is 6.

  1. In the octahedral crystal field, the d-orbitals of a metal will be split into

(A) 2 levels
(B) 3 levels
(C) 4 levels
(D) 6 levels

The correct option is (B) 3 levels.
Explanation:
In an octahedral crystal field, the five degenerate d-orbitals of a metal ion split into two sets of orbitals with different energy levels. The and orbitals form one higher energy set (eg), while the , , and orbitals form another lower energy set (t2g). Thus, the d-orbitals are split into 3 levels in total: one higher and one lower

  1. Among the following reagents, which one will be able to react with the benzene ring?

(A) HI
(B) Hot KMnO, solution
(C) O_{3} / Z * n
(D) Cold B*r_{2} / C * C*l_{4} solution

The correct option is (B) Hot KMnO₄ solution.
Explanation:
Hot KMnO₄ is a strong oxidizing agent that can react with alkyl side chains attached to the benzene ring, oxidizing them to carboxylic acids. The other reagents do not directly react with the benzene ring.

  1. Which of the following is closest to the pH of 10 ^ – 4 M NaOH solution?

(A) 11
(C) 7
(B) 10-2
(D) 12

The correct option is (B) Explanation: For a 10^-4 M NaOH solution, pOH = -log(10^-4) = 4. Then, pH = 14 - pOH = 14 - 4 = 10.

  1. Which of the elements given below is the most powerful oxidising agent?

(A) Fluorine
(B) Iodine
(C) Chlorine
(D) Hydrogen

The correct option is (A) Explanation: Fluorine has the highest electronegativity and reactivity among the given options, making it the most powerful oxidizing agent.

  1. According to the molecular orbital theory, which of the following is not a viable molecule?

(A) H e 2 ^ 2+
(B) H e 2 ^ +
(C) H_{2} ^ –
(D) H_{2} ^ 2-

The correct option is (D)
Explanation: H_{2}^{2-} has an equal number of electrons in bonding and antibonding orbitals, making it unstable and non-viable.

  1. The structure of I*F_{5} is based on which configuration

(A) Tetrahedral
(B) Trigonal bipyramidal
(C) Pentagonal bipyramidal
(D) Octahedral

The correct option is (C)
Explanation: IF5 has a pentagonal bipyramidal structure due to the presence of five bonding pairs and one lone pair around the central iodine atom, resulting in a distorted bipyramidal shape.

  1. How many isomers are there for butanone?

(A) None
(C) 2
(B) 1
(D) 3

The correct option is (A)
Explanation: Butanone (CH₃COCH₂CH₃) has no isomers as it has a straight-chain structure with the carbonyl group at the 2-position, and no other possible arrangements of atoms.

  1. Aufbau principle is one that governs

(A) entropy
(B) vapour pressure
(C) Coulomb’s potential
(D) electronic configuration

The correct option is (D)
Explanation: The Aufbau principle states that electrons occupy the lowest available energy levels in an atom, governing the electronic configuration of an atom.

  1. Which of the following statements concerning noble gases helium (He) and neon (Ne) is correct?

(A) The boiling point of He is greater than that of Ne.
(B) Both have 8 electrons in their outer shells.
(C) Both have very low boiling points.
(D) Both are used for filling electric gas lamps.

The correct option is (C)
Explanation: Both helium (He) and neon (Ne) are noble gases with very low boiling points due to their weak intermolecular forces, resulting from their full outer energy levels.

  1. What type of orbital hybridisation is used by the central atom of N H 2 ^ – ?

(A) sp
(B) s * p ^ 3
(C) s * p ^ 2
(D) s * p ^ 3 * d

The correct option is (C)
Explanation: In NH2-, the central nitrogen atom has 3 bonding pairs and 1 lone pair, resulting in a trigonal planar shape, which corresponds to sp^2 hybridization.

  1. What is the right electronic configuration of an element with 24 electrons?

(A) 1s ^ 2 * 2s ^ 2 * 2p ^ 6 * 3s ^ 2 * 3p ^ 6 * 3d ^ 6
(B) 1s ^ 2 * 2s ^ 2 * 2p ^ 6 * 3s ^ 2 * 3p ^ 6 * 4s ^ 1 * 3d ^ 5
(C) 1s ^ 2 * 2s ^ 2 * 2p ^ 6 * 3s ^ 2 * 3p ^ 6 * 4s ^ 2 * 3d ^ 4
(D) 1s ^ 2 * 2s ^ 2 * 2p ^ 6 * 3s ^ 2 * 3p ^ 6 * 4s ^ 1 * 4d ^ 5

The correct option is (C) 1s² * 2s² * 2p⁶ * 3s² * 3p⁶ * 4s² * 3d⁴
Explanation The element with 24 electrons is chromium (Cr). According to the Aufbau principle and Hund's rule, the correct electronic configuration of Cr is 1s² * 2s² * 2p⁶ * 3s² * 3p⁶ * 4s² * 3d⁴.

  1. Which of the following physical parameters has the same dimensions as that of the Planck’s constant?

(A) Linear momentum
(B) Angular momentum
(C) Energy
(D) Entropy

The correct option is (B)
Explanation: Planck's constant (h) has dimensions of energy × time (ML^2T^-1), which is the same as the dimensions of angular momentum.

  1. A particle describes a circular orbit having radius under the influence of an attractive central force directed towards a point on the circle. The force is inversely proportional to

(A) r ^ 2
(B) r ^ 3
(C) r ^ 4
(D) r ^ 5

The correct option is (B)
Explanation: For a particle moving in a circular orbit under the influence of a central force, the force (F) is given by F = (m × v^2) / r, where m is the mass, v is the velocity, and r is the radius. Since v = 2πr/T and T ∝ r^3/2 (from Kepler's third law), F ∝ 1/r^3, if the force is due to gravitation. However, in general, for a circular orbit, F ∝ 1/r^3, if the force is attractive and central.

  1. If the radius of the earth contracts to half of its present value without any change in its mass, what will be the new duration of the day in hours?

(A) 6 hours
(B) 8 hours
(C) 10 hours
(D) 12 hours

The correct option is (A)
Explanation: The moment of inertia (I) of the Earth is proportional to the square of its radius (R). If the radius contracts to half, the new moment of inertia (I') will be I'/4. Since angular momentum (L) is conserved, L = Iω = I'ω', where ω is the angular velocity. Therefore, ω' = 4ω, meaning the Earth's rotation rate will increase by a factor of 4. As a result, the new duration of the day will be 1/4 of the original 24 hours, which is 6 hours.

  1. A car starts from rest to cover a distance s. The coefficient of friction between the road and the tyres is u. The minimum time in which the car can cover the distance is proportional to

(Α) μ
(B) 1/mu
(C) sqrt(mu)
(D) 1/(sqrt(mu))

The correct option is (D)
Explanation: The minimum time to cover a distance is achieved when the car accelerates uniformly from rest. The acceleration (a) is given by a = μg, where g is the acceleration due to gravity. The time (t) taken to cover the distance (s) is given by s = (1/2)at^2. Substituting a = μg, we get t ∝ √(s/μg) ∝ 1/√μ.

  1. At what temperature the value of the surface tension of water will be the minimum?

(A) 75 deg * C
(B) 60 deg * C
(C) 40 deg * C
(D) 4 deg * C

The correct option is (D)
Explanation: The surface tension of water decreases with increasing temperature. It has a minimum value at 4°C (39.2°F), which is the temperature at which water has its maximum density. Above 4°C, the surface tension continues to decrease with increasing temperature.

  1. How many times a diatomic gas should be expanded adiabatically so as to reduce the root-mean-square velocity to half?

(A) 64
(B) 32
(C) 16
(D) 8

The correct option is (A) 64

  1. Internal energy of n 1, mol of hydrogen at temperature T is equal to that of mol of helium at n_{2} temperature The ratio m_{5}/n_{2} is

(A) 3/5
(B) 2/3
(C) 6/5
(D 3/7

The correct option is (C) 6/5

  1. As the temperature of air increases, the speed of sound in air

(A) increases
(B) decreases
(C) does not change
(D) None of the above

The correct option is(A) increases

  1. The intensity of a source of sound is increased by a factor of 100. The increase of the intensity level is

(A) 2 dB
(B) 10 dB
(C) 12 dB
(D) 20 dB

The correct option is (D) 20 dB

  1. Two coherent sources of monochromatic light of wavelength 6000 A produces an interference pattern on a screen kept at a distance of 1 m from them. The distance between two consecutive bright fringes on the screen is 0-5 mm. Then the distance between the two coherent sources is

(A) 12 mm
(B) 1-2 mm
(C) 16 mm
(D) 1-6 mm

The correct option is (A) 12 mm.

  1. The resolving power of an optical instrument is limited by the phenomena of

(A) interference
(B) diffraction
(C) dispersion
(D) polarisation

The correct option is (B) diffraction.
Explanation: The resolving power of an optical instrument, which refers to its ability to distinguish between two closely spaced objects, is primarily limited by diffraction. When light passes through an aperture or around an obstacle, it spreads out, creating diffraction patterns that limit the instrument's ability to resolve fine details

  1. The electric field due to an infinite uniform plane sheet of charge at a distance from the sheet is

(A) proportional to r
(B) proportional to 1/r
(C) proportional to 1/(r ^ 2)
(D) independent of r

The correct option is (D) independent of r

  1. In an L-C-R series circuit, the capacitance is changed from C to 4C. For the same resonant frequency, the inductance should be changed from L to

(A L/4
(B) L/2
(C) 2L
(D) 4L

The correct option is (C) 2L

  1. The magnitude of potential energy of the electron in a permitted orbit of hydrogen atoms is

(A) half of its kinetic energy
(B) two times of its kinetic energy
(C) equal to its kinetic energy
(D) square root of its kinetic energy

The correct option is (B) two times of its kinetic energy

  1. If lambda 1, and lambda_{2} be the wavelengths of an electron accelerated by potential difference of 49 volts and 100 volts respectively, then the relation between lambda_{1} and lambda_{2} is

(A) lambda_{1} = 7/10 * lambda_{2}
(B) lambda_{1} = 10/7 * lambda_{2}
(C) lambda_{1} = 7/100 * lambda_{2}
(D) lambda_{1} = 49/100 * lambda_{2}

The correct option is (B) lambda_{1} = 10/7 * lambda_{2}

  1. What is the decay constant of a nucleus whose half-life is 2-1 min?

(A) 0 * 33mi * n ^ – 1
(B) 3 * 3mi * n ^ – 1
(C) 33mi * n ^ – 1
(D) None of the above

The correct option is (B) 3 * 3mi * n ^ - 1

  1. Which of the following is not made up of quarks?

(A) Neutron
(B) Proton
(C) Hadron
(D) x-meson

The correct option is (D) x-meson
Explanation Neutrons, protons, and hadrons are all made up of quarks. However, mesons (including x-meson) are composed of a quark and an anti-quark, which are not the same as particles made purely of quarks

  1. The minimum number of NOR gates to perform the function of XOR gate is

(A) 1
(B) 3
(C) 5
(D) 7

The correct option is (C) 5
Explanation To implement an XOR gate using only NOR gates, a minimum of5 NOR gates are required. The NOR gates are combined in such a way to simulate the XOR functionality using fundamental Boolean logic.

  1. According to the BCS theory, the critical temperature, T_{c} of a superconducting material generally varies with its isotopic mass Mas

(A) T c propto M ^ (1/2)
(B) T c propto M ^ (- 1/2)
(C) T c propto M ^ (3/2)
(D) T c propto M ^ (- 3/3)

The correct option is (B)T c propto M ^ (- 1/2)

  1. A device which acts as a voltage variable capacitor is a

(A) Varactor diode
(B) Schottky diode
(C) Zener diode
(D) Gunn diode

The correct option is (A) Varactor diode
Explanation A Varactor diode acts as a voltage-variable capacitor because its capacitance changes with the applied reverse-bias voltage. This property makes it useful in tuning circuits, like RF and microwave systems

APSC Inspector of Factories General Studies Question Paper (2024) , APSC General Studies 2023 Questions, APSC Exam Solved Paper PDF, APSC Previous Year Question Paper, APSC Question Paper with Answers

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