APSC Motor Vehicle Inspector (MVI) Auto Mobile Engineering (2024) Question Paper With Answers

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

Test Booklet No. : 00361

TEST BOOKLET

Paper-II

(AUTOMOBILE ENGINEERING)

Time Allowed: 2 Hours Full Marks: 100


Read the following instructions carefully before you begin to answer the questions:

  1. The name of the Subject, Roll Number as mentioned in the Admission Certificate, Test Booklet No. and Series are to be written legibly and correctly in the space provided on the Answer-Sheet with Black/Blue ballpoint pen.
  2. Answer-Sheet without marking Series as mentioned above in the space provided for in the Answer-Sheet shall not be evaluated.
  3. All questions carry equal marks.

The Answer-Sheet should be submitted to the Invigilator.

Directions for giving the answers: Directions for answering questions have already been issued to the respective candidates in the Instructions for marking in the OMR Answer-Sheet’ along with the Admit Card and Specimen Copy of the OMR Answer-Sheet.
Example:

Suppose the following question is asked:

The capital of Bangladesh is
(A) Chennai
(B) London
(C) Dhaka
(D) Dhubri

You will have four alternatives in the Answer-Sheet for your response corresponding to each question of the Test Booklet as below:

In the above illustration, if your chosen response is alternative (C), ie., Dhaka, then the same should be marked on the Answer-Sheet by blackening the relevant circle with a Black/Blue ballpoint pen only as below: AB D

The example shown above is the only correct method of answering.

  1. Use of eraser, blade, chemical whitener fluid to rectify any response is prohibited.
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  1. This Test Booklet can be carried with you after answering the questions in the prescribed Answer-Sheet.
  2. Noncompliance with any of the above instructions will render a candidate liable to penalty as may be deemed fit
  3. No rough work is to be done on the OMR Answer-Sheet. You can do the rough work on the space provided in the Test Booklet.

N.B.: There will be negative marking @ 0-25 per 1 (one) mark against each wrong answer.


  1. Which of the following types of OS reads and reacts in terms of actual time?

(A) Quick-sharing OS
(B) Time-sharing OS
(C) Real-time OS
(D) Batch OS

The correct option is C.
Explanation: Real-time Operating Systems (RTOS) process and respond to inputs in real-time, without significant delays.

  1. Which of the following is not a keyword in CP

(A) Else
(B) Switch
(C) Include
(D) Continue

The correct option is C.
Explanation: Include is a preprocessor directive, not a keyword in C programming language.

  1. Microsoft Windows is

(A) an word processing program
(B) a database program
(C) an operating system
(D) a graphics program

The correct option is C.
Explanation: Microsoft Windows is an operating system (OS) for personal computers.

  1. The correct representation of binary number is

(A) (124)2
(B) 1110
(C) (110)
(D) (000)

The correct option is B.
Explanation: Binary numbers are represented using only two digits: 0 and 1. Option B, 1110, is a valid binary number.

  1. In break-even analysis, total cost consists of

(A) fixed cost sales revenue
(B) variable cost sales revenue.
(C) fixed cost variable cost
(D) fixed cost variable cost profit

The correct option is C.
Explanation: In break-even analysis, total cost comprises fixed costs (expenses that remain constant) and variable costs (expenses that vary with production/output).

  1. Production is the creation of

(A) utility
(B) wealth
(C) goods and services
(D) value

The correct option is C.
Explanation: Production involves creating goods and services through various processes, transforming inputs into outputs that meet consumer needs.

  1. The basic rule of book-keeping, debit the receiver and credit the giver, is applicable to

(A) nominal account
(B) real account
(C) personal account.
(D) drawing account

The correct option is C.
Explanation: Debit the receiver and credit the giver applies to personal accounts.

  1. Cash discount is recorded in

(A) sales book
(B) purchase book
(C) cashhook
(D) Both (A) and (B)

The correct option is C.
Explanation: Cash discounts are recorded in the cash book.

  1. A current is said to be alternating. when it changes in

(A) magnitude only
(B) direction only
(C) both magnitude and direction
(D) None of the above

The correct option is C.
Explanation: Alternating current changes both magnitude and direction.

  1. According to Fleming right-hand rule’ for finding the direction of induced e.m.f., when middle finger points in the direction of induced e.m.f., forefinger will point in the direction of

(A) motion of conductor
(B) lines of force
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above

The correct option is C.
Explanation: Forefinger points towards motion, middle finger towards induced e.m.f., and thumb towards magnetic field.

  1. The ratio of real power to apparent. power in an AC circuit is called

(A) peak factor
(B) form factor
(C) power factor
(D) crest factor

The correct option is C.
Explanation: Power factor is the ratio of real power to apparent power.

  1. A fuse is provided in an electric circuit for

(A) safeguarding the installation. against heavy current
(B) reducing the current flow in the circuit
(C) reducing the power consumption
(D) All of the above

The correct option is A.
Explanation: Fuses safeguard against heavy current.

  1. EIA is

(A) Environmental Internal Assessment
(B) Environmental Impact Assess- ment
(C) Environmental Interaction Assessment
(D) Environmental Impact Analysis

The correct option is B.
Explanation: Environmental Impact Assessment.

  1. Ecology deals with the study of

(A) living beings
(B) living and non-living beings.
(C) reciprocal relationship between living and non-living components
(D) None of the above

The correct option is C.
Explanation: Ecology studies relationships between living and non-living components.

  1. The ratio of inertia force to surface tension is known as

(A) Mach number
(B) Froude number
(C) Reynolds’ number
(D) Weber number

The correct option is D.
Explanation: Weber number represents inertia force to surface tension ratio.

  1. A foot valve is provided on

(A) centrifugal pumps.
(B) Kaplan turbines
(C) Pelton wheels.
(D) reciprocating pumps

The correct option is D.
Explanation: Foot valves are used in reciprocating pumps.

  1. Water hammer in pipes takes place when

(A) fluid is flowing with high. velocity
(B) fluid is flowing with high. pressure
(C) flowing fluid is gradually brought to rest
(D) flowing fluid is suddenly brought to rest by closing the valve

The correct option is D.
Explanation: Water hammer occurs when flowing fluid is suddenly stopped.

  1. In metal machining, the zone where the maximum heat is generated is

(A) shear zone
(B) chip-tool interface zone
(C) tool-work interface zone
(D) None of the above

The correct option is A.
Explanation: Shear zone experiences maximum heat generation.

  1. Drilling operation is an example of

(A) oblique cutting
(B) orthogonal cutting
(C) simple cutting
(D) uniform cutting

The correct option is A.
Explanation: Drilling involves oblique cutting.

  1. Projection welding is

(A) a multispot welding process
(B) a continuous spot welding process
(C) an arc welding process
(D) None of the above

The correct option is A.
Explanation: Projection welding is a multi-spot welding process.

  1. The camshaft of a four-stroke IC engine running at 1500 r.p.m. will run at

(A) 1500 r.p.m.
(B) 750 r.p.m.
(C) 3000 r.p.m.
(D) any value independent of engine speed

The correct option is B.
Explanation: Camshaft runs at half engine speed.

  1. The ratio of primary to secondary winding ignition coil turns is, approximately

(A) 1:10
(B) 1:50
(C) 1:100
(D) 1:200

The correct option is C.
Explanation: Primary to secondary turns ratio is approximately 1:100.

  1. The slip joint of propeller shaft permits a change in the

(A) angle of drive
(B) rotation of the shaft
(C) speed of the shaft
(D) length of the shaft

The correct option is D.
Explanation: Slip joint allows length adjustments.

  1. The knock in diesel engine occurs due to

(A) instantaneous burning of the first part of charge
(B) instantaneous auto-ignition of the last part of charge.
(C) delayed burning of the first part of charge
(D) reduction of delay period

The correct option is B.
Explanation: Knock occurs due to instantaneous auto-ignition.

  1. Ignition timing of a multi cylinder petrol engine can be adjusted by

(A) rotating the crank
(B) adjusting the spark plug gap
(C) adjusting ignition coil position
(D) rotating the distribution

The correct option is (D)
Explanation: Rotating the distributor cap or rotor adjusts the ignition timing by changing the sequence and timing of spark delivery to the cylinders.

  1. Which of the following antifreeze solutions is commonly used in automobile?

(A) Alcohol
(B) Carbon disulphide
(C) Brine
(D) Ammonium chloride

The correct option is D.
Explanation: Ammonium chloride is commonly used.

  1. The gas constant R is equal to the

(A) sum of two specific heats.
(B) difference of two specific heats
(C) product of two specific heats
(D) ratio of two specific heats.

The correct option is B.
Explanation: Gas constant R relates to difference of specific heats.

  1. The basis for the measurement of temperature is given by the

(A) first law of thermodynamics
(B) zeroth law of thermodynamics
(C) second law of thermodynamics
(D) third law of thermodynamics

The correct option is B.
Explanation: Zeroth law of thermodynamics.

  1. The heat absorbed by water at its saturation temperature to converted into dry steam at the same temperature is called.

(A) sensible heat
(B) specific heat.
(C) latent heat
(D) total heat

The correct option is C.
Explanation: Latent heat is absorbed during phase change.

  1. In which operation on a work piece on lathe, the spindle speed will be least?

(A) Taper turning
(B) Thread cutting
(C) Plain turning
(D) Finishing

The correct option is D.
Explanation: Finishing operations require lowest spindle speed.

  1. In a drilling operation

(A) torque is equal to the axial force
(B) torque is more than the axial force
(C) torque is less than the axial force
(D) torque is half the axial force

The correct option is C.
Explanation: Torque is less than axial force.

  1. In case of a shaper equipped with Whitworth mechanism

(A) the cutting stroke in faster than the return stroke
(B) the return stroke is faster than the cutting stroke
(C) both the cutting and return strokes take the same time
(D) the return stroke is slower than the cutting stroke

The correct option is B.
Explanation: The return stroke is faster than the cutting stroke in a shaper equipped with Whitworth mechanism.

  1. Feed rate in milling machine is equal to

(A) RPM
(B) RPM No. of teeth
(C) RPM Feed per tooth No. of teeth
(D) RPM Feed per tooth No. of teeth/ 2

The correct option is C.
Explanation: Feed rate = RPM * Feed per tooth * Number of teeth.

  1. In EDM, the rate of metal removal f varies with discharge voltage Vas
    (A) M propto 1/V
    (B) MV
    (C) M * V ^ 2
    (D) M * V ^ 3

The correct option is C.
Explanation: Metal removal rate varies with discharge voltage squared.

  1. Point angle of 118 deg on drills is used. for

(A) all general applications on mild steel
(B) bakelite, hard rubber and fibrous plastics.
(C) hard steel and nickel alloys
(D) thin sheet metal

The correct option is A.
Explanation: 118-degree point angle for general applications.

  1. Identify the incorrect combination.

(A) Ball bearing and roller bearing: Rolling pair
(B) Crosshead and guides Sliding pair
(C) A bolt and nut Turning pair
(D) A ball and socket joint: Spherical pair

The correct option is A.
Explanation: Ball and roller bearings are rolling pairs.

  1. In a flat belt drive, the belt can be subjected to maximum tension Tand centrifugal tension T c^ * For maximum. power transmission

(A) T deg = T_{c}
(B) T = sqrt(3T_{e})
(C) T = 2T_{c}
(D) T = 3T_{e}

The correct option is C.
Explanation: Maximum tension is twice centrifugal tension.

  1. Leaf springs are subjected to, and absorbs shocks by

(A) shear stress.
(B) direct stress
(C) bending stress
(D) None of the above

The correct option is (C)
Explanation: Leaf springs absorb shocks by bending under load, which generates bending stress. This bending action allows the spring to flex and absorb energy from impacts.

  1. The ball masses of a governor have the same equilibrium speed for all radius of rotation of the balls within the working range. This characteristic of the governor is referred to as

(A) stability
(B) hunting
(C) sensitivity
(D) isochronism

The correct option is (D)
Explanation: Isochronism in a governor refers to maintaining the same equilibrium speed regardless of the radius at which the balls rotate, ensuring a constant engine speed.

  1. The pitch point of a cam-follower mechanism is

(A) any point on the pitch circle
(B) any point on the pitch curve
(C) a point on the cam pitch curve. having the maximum pressure angle
(D) a reference point on the follower for the purpose of tracing the cam profile

The correct option is (D)
Explanation: The pitch point of a cam-follower mechanism is a reference point on the follower used to trace the cam profile, aiding in cam-follower design.

  1. When a shaft is subjected to a twisting moment, every cross-section of the shaft will be in

(A) tensile stress
(B) compressive stress
(C) shear stress
(D) bending stress

The correct option is (C)
Explanation: A twisting moment on a shaft generates shear stress at every cross-section of the shaft due to rotational forces.

  1. The bending moment at the free end of a cantilever beam is

(A) minimum
(B) maximum
(C) zero
(D) None of the above

The correct option is (C)
Explanation: In a cantilever beam, the bending moment is zero at the free end since there is no external force or support at that point.

  1. The ability of a body to absorb energy and to deform plastically without fracturing is known as

(A) creep
(B) elasticity
(C) plasticity
(D) toughness

The correct option is (D)
Explanation: Toughness is the ability of a material to absorb energy and deform plastically without breaking, combining strength and ductility.

  1. The distance between the centre of a rivet hole to the nearest edge of plate is called

(A) pitch
(B) back pitch
(C) margin
(D) diagonal pitch

The correct option is (C)
Explanation: The margin is the distance between the center of a rivet hole and the nearest edge of the plate, ensuring strength around the hole.

  1. The advantage of a tandem master cylinder is that it

(A) enhances safety by serving two independent lines in a divided- line brake circuit
(B) enhances safety by activating the brakes using vacuum pressure in the event of brake fluid loss
(C) supplies equal fluid pressure to each line of a divided-line brake circuit, thereby preventing the brakes from dragging on one side
(D) increases the brake fluid pressure to reduce the force required to depress the brake. pedal

The correct option is (A)
Explanation: A tandem master cylinder enhances safety by serving two independent brake lines in a divided-line brake circuit, preventing total brake failure.

  1. The process of removing all of the old brake fluid from the hydraulic system is called

(A) bleeding
(B) cleaning
(C) changing.
(D) flushing

The correct option is (D)
Explanation: Flushing is the process of removing all old brake fluid from the hydraulic system, ensuring fresh fluid circulates for optimal performance.

  1. A front stabilizer bar is used to

(A) increase vehicle load-carrying capacity
(B) provide a softer ride
(C) control suspension movement and body roll
(D) All of the above

The correct option is (C)
Explanation: A front stabilizer bar controls suspension movement and reduces body roll, improving vehicle stability during cornering.

  1. In which type of gearbox, sliding dog clutch is present?

(A) Sliding mesh
(B) Synchromesh
(C) Constant mesh
(D) None of the above

The correct option is (A)
Explanation: A sliding mesh gearbox uses a sliding dog clutch to engage and disengage gears, which requires manual shifting.

  1. The combination wrench

(A) has boxes at both ends
(B) has box at one end and is open at one end
(C) is open at both ends
(D) has replaceable socket

The correct option is (B)
Explanation: A combination wrench has a box end at one side for more torque and an open end for quick use.

  1. ARAI stands for

(A) Automobile Research Association of India
(B) Automobile Research Associate of India
(C) Automotive Research Association of India
(D) Automotive Research Associate of India

The correct option is (A)
Explanation: ARAI stands for the Automobile Research Association of India, an organization focused on automobile research and development in India.

  1. For speeding up the tightening work, we have to use wrench with

(A) long handle
(B) ratchet handle
(C) braced handle.
(D) extension bar

The correct option is (B)
Explanation: A ratchet handle allows continuous tightening in one direction, speeding up the work without repositioning the wrench.

  1. Which type of jack is a standard accessory with cars?

(A) Trolley type.
(B) Scissor type
(C) Screw type
(D) None of the above

The correct option is (B)
Explanation: The scissor jack is commonly provided as a standard accessory in cars due to its compact size and ease of use.

  1. Which of the following is a boiler accessory?

(A) Fusible plug
(B) Water level indicator
(C) Economiser
(D) Stop valve

The correct option is (C)
Explanation: An economizer is a boiler accessory that improves efficiency by preheating incoming feedwater using exhaust gases.

  1. Bleeding in turbine means

(A) extracts steam for pre-heating feedwater
(B) removal of condensed steam
(C) exhausted steam in condenser
(D) leakage of steam

The correct option is (A)
Explanation: Bleeding in turbines refers to extracting steam for preheating feedwater before it re-enters the system, improving efficiency.

  1. The effect of friction when steam flows across the blade passages is expressed by the ratio of relative velocities at outlet and inlet K = C r2 C r1 ). The factor is called

(A) friction factor
(B) blade velocity coefficient
(C) utilization factor
(D) blade speed ratio

The correct option is (B)
Explanation: The blade velocity coefficient measures the effect of friction between steam and turbine blades, influencing overall efficiency.

  1. The length of tail pipe filled to the barometric condenser is about high-level jet

(A) 6-2 metres.
(B) 7-6 metres
(C) 8-5 metres
(D) 10-4 metres

The correct option is (B)
Explanation: The length of the tailpipe in barometric condensers is typically around 7.6 meters, designed for effective steam condensation.

  1. A composite slab has two layers of different materials having thermal conductivities k_{1} and k_{2} If each layer has thickness, the equivalent thermal conductivity of the slab would be

(A) (k_{1}k_{2})/(k_{1} + k_{2}
(B) (k_{1}k_{2})/(2(k_{1} + k_{2}))
(C) (2k_{1})/(k_{1} + k_{2})
(D) (2k_{1}*k_{2})/(k_{1} + k_{2})

The correct option is (A)
Explanation: The equivalent thermal conductivity of a composite slab with two materials is calculated using the harmonic mean of their thermal conductivities.

  1. Moderator in a nuclear powerplant is used to

(A) protect against neutron and gamma rays
(B) absorb excess neutrons
(C) slow down the speed of fast- moving neutrons
(D) return the neutrons back into the core of reactor

The correct option is (C)
Explanation: The moderator in a nuclear reactor slows down fast-moving neutrons to increase the likelihood of further fission reactions.

  1. In industrial engineering, the term ‘quality control’ means

(A) maintaining product standards and consistency
(B) financial risk analysis
(C) ensuring employee consumer satisfaction and
(D) maintaining production cost as per management’s guideline

The correct option is (A)
Explanation: Quality control ensures that products meet the required standards and are consistently manufactured to ensure reliability and customer satisfaction.

  1. The type of organization preferred for an automobile industry is

(A) line organization
(B) functional organization
(C) line and staff organization
(D) line, staff and organization functional

The correct option is (C)
Explanation: A line and staff organization is ideal for the automobile industry, combining efficient operations with specialized staff expertise.

  1. Gantt chart provides information about

(A) breakeven point analysis
(B) production schedule
(C) material handling layout
(D) determining selling price

The correct option is (B)
Explanation: Gantt charts provide a visual representation of the production schedule, showing tasks or activities over time.

  1. Method study needs to be taken up when there is

(A) fatigue working and wastage of material
(B) faulty production planning and control
(C) inadequate process capacity
(D) dissatisfaction among worker

The correct option is (A)
Explanation: Method study should be taken up when there is fatigue working and wastage of material, as it helps improve efficiency and reduce waste.

  1. Bin cards are used in

(A) machine loading
(B) fixing target.
(C) quality control
(D) stores

The correct option is (D)
Explanation: Bin cards are used in stores to track inventory, keeping a record of the stock levels and movements of materials.

  1. In the Halsey system of wage incentive plan, a worker is

(A) paid as per efficiency
(B) ensured of minimum wages
(C) not paid any bonus till his efficiency reaches 66-% 3
(D) never a loser

The correct option is (B)
Explanation: In the Halsey system, a worker is ensured of minimum wages, while also receiving a bonus for efficiency beyond the standard.

  1. Condensing temperature in refrigerator is the temperature

(A) of cooling medium
(B) of freezing zone
(C) of evaporator

The correct option is (A)
Explanation: The condensing temperature in a refrigerator refers to the temperature of the cooling medium, which facilitates heat rejection from the refrigerant.

  1. In psychrometric chart, the vertical lines parallel to the ordinates indicate

(A) dry-bulb temperature
(B) wet-bulb temperature
(C) specific humidity
(D) enthalpy of saturation

The correct option is (A)
Explanation: In a psychrometric chart, the vertical lines parallel to the ordinates indicate dry-bulb temperature, which measures air temperature.

  1. Which of the following is not a desirable property of a good refrigerant?

(A) Low specific heat
(B) High specific volume of vapour
(C) Low boiling point
(D) High critical temperature

The correct option is (B)
Explanation: A good refrigerant should have high specific volume of vapour, low boiling point, and high critical temperature, but low specific heat is not a desirable property.

  1. Which of the following power plants has the highest share of installed. capacity?

(A) Hydro
(B) Coal
(C) Nuclear
(D) Gas

The correct option is (B)
Explanation: Coal power plants have the highest share of installed capacity globally, being a major source of electricity generation.

  1. The output voltage of a solar cell is, approximately

(A) 0-6 V
(B) 1-5 V
(C) 2-1 V
(D) 3 V

The correct option is (A)
Explanation: The output voltage of a solar cell is approximately 0.6 V under standard test conditions.

  1. The working fluid in closed cycle. OTEC plant is

(A) water
(B) seawater (C) ammonia
(D) chlorofluorocarbon

The correct option is (C)
Explanation: The working fluid in a closed cycle OTEC (Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion) plant is ammonia, which operates by utilizing temperature differences in the ocean.

  1. The term ‘entrepreneur’ is derived. from the term ‘entreprendre which means

(A) to give
(B) to undertake
(C) to choose
(D) to decide.

  1. The first management principle was developed by

(A) Frederick Taylor
(B) Charles Handy
(C) Henri Fayol.
(D) William Petty

The correct option is (C)
Explanation: Henri Fayol developed the first management principles, which are widely regarded as the foundation of modern management theory.

  1. Human resource management is the amalgamation of

(A) job analysis, recruitment and selection
(B) social behaviour and business ethics
(C) organizational. behaviour, personal management and industrial relation
(D) employer and employees

The correct option is (C)
Explanation: Human resource management integrates aspects of organizational behavior, personnel management, and industrial relations to effectively manage human capital.

  1. If one cylinder of diesel engine receives more fuel than the others, then for that cylinder, the

(A) exhaust will be smoky
(B) scavenging occurs
(C) piston rings would stick into piston grooves
(D) engine starts overheating

The correct option is (A)
Explanation: If one cylinder of a diesel engine receives more fuel than the others, it will result in smoky exhaust due to incomplete combustion.

  1. The basic requirement of a good combustion chamber is

(A) high compression ratio
(B) low volumetric efficiency
(C) minimum turbulence.
(D) high power output and high thermal efficiency

The correct option is (A)
Explanation: A good combustion chamber requires a high compression ratio to achieve efficient combustion and high thermal efficiency in an engine.

  1. In a typical medium speed 4-stroke cycle diesel engine

(A) exhaust valve opens at 35 before bottom dead centre and closes at 20″ after top dead. centre
(B) exhaust valve opens at bottom dead centre and closes at top dead centre
(C) exhaust valve opens just after bottom dead centre and closes just before top dead centre
(D) may open and close anywhere

The correct option is (C)
Explanation: In a typical medium-speed 4-stroke cycle diesel engine, the exhaust valve opens just after bottom dead center and closes just before top dead center.

  1. Which type of gears are preferred for low noise application?

(A) Spur gears with cycloidal profile
(B) Spur gears with involute profile
(C) Bevel gears
(D) Helical gears

The correct option is (D)
Explanation: Helical gears are preferred for low noise applications due to their smoother tooth engagement, which reduces vibration and noise.

  1. Taper roller bearings are used in automobile for

(A) wheels
(B) gearbox
(C) differential
(D) engine crank shaft

The correct option is (A)
Explanation: Taper roller bearings are used in automobile wheels, where they handle both radial and axial loads.

  1. Piston rings are usually made of

(A) cast iron
(B) stainless steel
(C) high carbon steel
(D) aluminium

The correct option is (A)
Explanation: Piston rings are usually made of cast iron, which offers wear resistance and good sealing properties.

  1. The capacity of a battery in determined by the number of plates per cell and

(A) the number of cells.
(B) the size of plates
(C) the shape of plates
(D) the number of separators

The correct option is (B)
Explanation: The capacity of a battery is determined by the number of cells and the size of the plates, which impacts its energy storage ability.

  1. In an AC generator, magnetic field is produced in the

(A) armature
(B) regulator
(C) stator
(D) rotor

The correct option is (C)
Explanation: In an AC generator, the magnetic field is produced in the rotor, which rotates and induces a current in the stationary armature.

  1. The number of diodes used in an alternator is

(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) 6

The correct option is (C)
Explanation: The number of diodes used in an alternator is typically four, forming a full-wave rectifier to convert AC to DC.

  1. The major purpose of electronically controlled automatic transmission in that this type of transmission

(A) eliminates gear clutches
(B) eliminates the gear shift lever
(C) reduces the number of auto- matic transmission components
(D) reduces shift shock and achieves more efficient trans- mission of engine torque

The correct option is (D)
Explanation: The major purpose of electronically controlled automatic transmission is to reduce shift shock and achieve more efficient transmission of engine torque.

  1. Three components of primary ignition circuit are

(A) the contact breaker, condenser and distributor cap
(B) the contact breaker, ignition coil and spark plug
(C) the contact breaker, ignition switch and condenser
(D) the contact breaker, ignition switch and spark plug

The correct option is (B)
Explanation: The three components of the primary ignition circuit are the contact breaker, ignition coil, and spark plug.

  1. The type of battery used in electric vehicle is

(A) nickel-cadmium battery
(B) lithium-ion battery
(C) nickel-metal hydride battery.
(D) zinc air battery.

The correct option is (B)
Explanation: The type of battery commonly used in electric vehicles is lithium-ion batteries, which offer high energy density and long lifespan.

  1. Direct cost a product, of manufactured in a factory, is determined by the sum of

(A) direct material, direct expenses. and indirect labour
(B) direct material, direct expenses and direct labour
(C) direct material, indirect expenses and indirect labour
(D) indirect material, direct expenses and direct labour

The correct option is (B)
Explanation: Direct cost of a product is determined by the sum of direct material, direct expenses, and direct labor, as they are directly attributable to production.

  1. The basic purpose of providing caster angle on wheels is to

(A) prevent uneven tyre wear
(B) maintain directional control and stability
(C) bring the road contact of the tyre under the point of load
(D) compensate for wear in the steering linkage

The correct option is (B)
Explanation: The basic purpose of providing caster angle on wheels is to maintain directional control and stability by ensuring the wheels align correctly during movement.

  1. If a square bar is of 4 cm side and 30 cm length, what is the volume?

(A) 450 m³
(B) 480 cm³
(C) 480 mm³
(D) 480 m²

The correct option is (B)
Explanation: The volume of a square bar with a side of 4 cm and length of 30 cm is 480 cm³, calculated by multiplying the cross-sectional area by the length.

  1. The operation to be performed with hammer in sheet metal shop is

(A) riveting work
(B) bending of sheets.
(C) smoothening of sheets.
(D) All of the above

The correct option is (D)
Explanation: The operation to be performed with a hammer in a sheet metal shop includes riveting, bending, and smoothening of sheets, making it versatile.

  1. ‘Go’ and ‘No Go’ gauges are types of

(A) limit gauge
(B) ring gauge
(C) slip gauge
(D) plug gauge

The correct option is (A)
Explanation: ‘Go’ and ‘No Go’ gauges are types of limit gauges, used to check whether a part fits within specified tolerances.

  1. The term ‘allowance’ in limit and fits is usually referred to

(A) minimum clearance between shaft and hole
(B) maximum clearance between shaft and hole
(C) a difference of tolerance of hole and shaft
(D) difference between maximum size and minimum size of the hole

The correct option is (C)
Explanation: The term ‘allowance’ in limit and fits refers to the difference between the maximum size of the hole and the minimum size of the shaft.

  1. A plug gauge is used for measuring

(A) cylinders.
(B) cylinder bore
(C) spherical hole
(D) screw threads

The correct option is (B)
Explanation: A plug gauge is used for measuring cylinder bores, ensuring they conform to the required dimensions.

  1. The measuring tip of a compactor, for general use should be

(A) grooved
(B) conical
(C) spherical
(D) flat

The correct option is (C)
Explanation: The measuring tip of a compactor, for general use, should be spherical to provide uniform contact with the surface being compacted.

  1. Which one of the following is not a type of accumulator?

(A) Gravity type
(B) Spring-loaded type
(C) Gas-loaded type
(D) Differential temperature type

The correct option is (D)
Explanation: A differential temperature type accumulator is not a common type of accumulator, as most types are gravity-loaded, spring-loaded, or gas-loaded.

  1. Most suitable roller effective in compacting cohesive soils in

(A) sheep foot roller
(B) smooth wheel roller
(C) pneumatic tire roller
(D) vibratory roller

The correct option is (A)
Explanation: The most suitable roller for compacting cohesive soils is a sheep foot roller, which exerts pressure on the soil for effective compaction.

  1. In case of a crane, what type of part is attached to the fixed cylindrical chamber which moves in the upward or downward direction?

(A) Jigger
(B) Sliding ram
(C) Crown
(D) Pulley

The correct option is (B)
Explanation: In a crane, the sliding ram is the part attached to the fixed cylindrical chamber that moves upward or downward.

  1. An equipment which is very useful and which can be used for construction work, like to clear the site of work, to make the land level etc. is

(A) scraper
(B) grader
(C) excavator
(D) bulldozer

The correct option is (D)
Explanation: An equipment that is used for clearing the site of work, leveling land, and other construction activities is a bulldozer.

  1. Which type of equipment is used to level the ground and spreads the loose material?

(A) Excavator
(B) Scraper
(C) Grader
(D) Tractor

The correct option is (C)
Explanation: A grader is used to level the ground and spread loose material, providing a smooth and even surface.

  1. The heat transfer from coolant to air in the radiator of an automobile engine takes place by

(A) radiation only
(B) convection only
(C) convection and radiation
(D) conduction, radiation convection and

e correct option is (C)
Explanation: The heat transfer from coolant to air in the radiator of an automobile engine takes place through convection and radiation.

  1. Thermal efficiencies of petrol and diesel engine are

(A) 30% and 70%
(B) 15% and 50%
(C) 50% and 70%
(D) 15% and 70%

The correct option is (D)
Explanation: The thermal efficiencies of petrol and diesel engines are typically 15% and 70%, respectively, with diesel engines being more efficient.


APSC Motor Vehicle Inspector (MVI) Auto Mobile Engineering (2024) Question Paper, APSC General Studies 2023 Questions, APSC Exam Solved Paper PDF, APSC Previous Year Question Paper, APSC Question Paper with Answers

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