APSC Motor Vehicle Inspector (MVI) Mechanical Engineer (2024) Question Paper With Answers

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

TEST BOOKLET

Paper-II

(MECHANICAL ENGINEERING)

Time Allowed: 2 Hours Full Marks: 100


Read the following instructions carefully before you begin to answer the questions:

  1. The name of the Subject, Roll Number as mentioned in the Admission Certificate, Test Booklet No. and Series are to be written legibly and correctly in the space provided on the Answer-Sheet with Black/Blue ballpoint pen.
  2. Answer-Sheet without marking Series as mentioned above in the space provided for in the Answer-Sheet shall not be evaluated.
  3. All questions carry equal marks.

The Answer-Sheet should be submitted to the Invigilator.

Directions for giving the answers: Directions for answering questions have already been issued to the respective candidates in the Instructions for marking in the OMR Answer-Sheet’ along with the Admit Card and Specimen Copy of the OMR Answer-Sheet.
Example:

Suppose the following question is asked:

The capital of Bangladesh is
(A) Chennai
(B) London
(C) Dhaka
(D) Dhubri

You will have four alternatives in the Answer-Sheet for your response corresponding to each question of the Test Booklet as below:

In the above illustration, if your chosen response is alternative (C), ie., Dhaka, then the same should be marked on the Answer-Sheet by blackening the relevant circle with a Black/Blue ballpoint pen only as below: AB D

The example shown above is the only correct method of answering.

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  1. This Test Booklet can be carried with you after answering the questions in the prescribed Answer-Sheet.
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N.B.: There will be negative marking @ 0-25 per 1 (one) mark against each wrong answer.


  1. Which of the following allows simultaneous write and read operation in a computer?

(A) ROM
(B) EROM
(C) RAM
(D) EEPROM

The correct option is (C) RAM
Explanation RAM (Random Access Memory) allows simultaneous read and write operations, making it essential for real-time processing.

  1. What is the term for the data communication system within a building or campus?

(A) MAN
(B) WAN
(C) PAN
(D) LAN

The correct option is (D) LAN
Explanation LAN (Local Area Network) is used for data communication within a building or campus.

  1. MS-Word is an example of

(A) an operating system
(B) a processing device
(C) an application software
(D) an output device

The correct option is (C) an application software
Explanation MS-Word is an application software used for word processing tasks.

  1. A/An is a central server on a computer network that enables. connected clients to access the server’s storage capacities.

(A) web server
(B) application server
(C) print server
(D) file server

The correct option is (D) file server
Explanation A file server provides centralized storage for clients to access and manage files on a network.

  1. In hexadecimal system, 10 is represented by

(A) E
(B) F
(C) G
(D) None of the above

The correct option is (D) None of the above
Explanation In the hexadecimal system, 10 is represented as 'A'.

  1. Demand for commodity is more due to price fall is a situation of

(A) increase in demand
(B) contraction of demand
(C) decrease in demand
(D) extension of demand

The correct option is (D) extension of demand
Explanation When the demand for a commodity increases due to a price fall, it is termed as 'extension of demand'.

  1. Which one of the following is not a factor of production?

(A) Land
(B) Labour
(C) Motivation
(D) Capital

The correct option is (C) Motivation
Explanation Motivation is not considered a factor of production, unlike land, labour, and capital.

  1. Out of the following, which is not a measure of sustainable water management?

(A) Preventing leakage from dam and canals
(B) Reducing the rate of surface runoff water
(C) Preventing loss in the municipal waste
(D) Building several small reservoirs instead of few mega projects

The correct option is (C) Preventing loss in the municipal waste
Explanation While important, preventing municipal waste loss is not a direct measure of sustainable water management.

  1. Which element is building block of both animal and plant tissues?

(A) Sulphur
(B) Carbon
(C) Nitrogen
(D) None of the above

The correct option is (B) Carbon
Explanation Carbon is a fundamental building block of both animal and plant tissues.

  1. The study of interaction between living and non-living organisms and environment is

(A) ecology
(B) ecosystem
(C) phytosociology
(D) phytogeography

The correct option is (A) ecology
Explanation Ecology is the study of interactions between living and non-living organisms and their environment.

  1. The ultraviolet radiation in the stratosphere is absorbed by

(A) carbon dioxide
(B) sulphur dioxide
(C) oxygen
(D) ozone

The correct option is (D) ozone
Explanation Ozone absorbs the majority of ultraviolet radiation in the stratosphere, protecting life on Earth from harmful UV rays.

  1. Noise pollution causes

(A) paralysis
(B) blurred vision
(C) anxiety and hypertension
(D) failure of breathing

The correct option is (C) anxiety and hypertension
Explanation Noise pollution can lead to anxiety, stress, and hypertension due to continuous exposure to loud sounds.

  1. The primary greenhouse gas is

(A) water vapour
(B) N₂O
(C) CH4
(D) CO2

The correct option is (A) water vapour
Explanation Water vapor is the most significant greenhouse gas in the Earth's atmosphere.

  1. Which of the following is a semi- conductor material?

(A) Gold
(B) Iron
(C) Copper
(D) Silicon

The correct option is (D) Silicon
Explanation Silicon is a widely used semiconductor material in electronic devices and systems.

  1. The principle of operation of a transformer is based on

(A) Ampere’s law
(B) Faraday’s law of electro- magnetic induction
(C) conservation of momentum
(D) Coulomb’s law

The correct option is (B) Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction
Explanation A transformer operates based on Faraday's law, which involves electromagnetic induction to change voltage levels.

  1. The metacentric height is the distance between the

(A) centre of gravity of the floating body and centre of buoyancy
(B) centre of gravity of the floating body and the metacentre
(C) metacentre and centre buoyancy of
(D) centre of gravity of the floating body and the centre of pressure

The correct option is (B) centre of gravity of the floating body and the metacentre
Explanation The metacentric height is the distance between the center of gravity of a floating body and its metacentre, affecting stability.

  1. An ideal flow of any fluid must fulfill which of the following?

(A) Pascal’s law
(B) Newton’s law of viscosity
(C) Bernoulli’s theorem
(D) Continuity equation.

The correct option is (D) Continuity equation
Explanation The continuity equation ensures that the mass flow rate is constant in an ideal fluid flow.

  1. Hydraulic ram is a device used

(A) to accelerate the water flow
(B) to lift water without electric motor
(C) for lifting heavy load
(D) to beat water and lift it

The correct option is (B) to lift water without electric motor
Explanation A hydraulic ram is a device that lifts water using the energy from flowing water without needing an electric motor.

  1. 1 bar is equal to

(A) 105 N/m²
(B) 0-1 MN/m²
(C) 100 kN/m²
(D) All of the above

The correct option is (D) All of the above
Explanation 1 bar is equal to 100,000 N/m², 0.1 MN/m², and 100 kN/m², making all the options correct.

  1. Power required to drive centrifugal pump is proportional to its impeller. the directly of its

(A) diameter
(B) square of diameter
(C) cube of diameter
(D) fourth power of diameter

The correct option is (C) cube of diameter
Explanation The power required to drive a centrifugal pump is proportional to the cube of the impeller diameter.

  1. A channel is said to be most economical cross-section if

(A) it gives maximum discharge for a given cross-sectional area and bed slope
(B) it has maximum wetted perimeter
(C) it involves lesser excavation for the designed channel
(D) All of the above

The correct option is (A) it gives maximum discharge for a given cross-sectional area and bed slope
Explanation A channel is said to have the most economical cross-section when it allows maximum discharge with minimum effort or resistance.

  1. In machining, the zone where maximum heat is generated due to plastic deformation is called

(A) shear zone
(B) friction zone
(C) work-tool contact zone
(D) None of the above

The correct option is (A) shear zone
Explanation The shear zone is where maximum heat is generated during machining due to plastic deformation of the material.

  1. In Taylor’s tool life equation VTC, V and T respectively represents

(A) cutting speed and temperature
(B) cutting speed and tool life
(C) volume and temperature
(D) volume and tool life

The correct option is (B) cutting speed and tool life
Explanation In Taylor’s tool life equation, 'V' represents cutting speed, and 'T' represents tool life, showing their relationship.

  1. Which of the following tools is manufactured by powder metallurgy?

(A) Low carbon steel
(B) High carbon steel
(C) High speed steel
(D) Carbide tools

The correct option is (D) Carbide tools
Explanation Carbide tools are manufactured using powder metallurgy due to their hard and wear-resistant nature.

  1. How many atoms are there in unit cell of a b.c.c. space lattice?

(A) 6
(B) 9
(C) 14
(D) 17

The correct option is (B) 9
Explanation In a body-centered cubic (b.c.c.) space lattice, there are 9 atoms in a unit cell, including one at the center.

  1. The steel used for motor car crank- shafts is

(A) nickel steel
(B) chrome steel
(C) nickel-chrome steel
(D) silicon steel

The correct option is (C) nickel-chrome steel
Explanation Nickel-chrome steel is commonly used for motor car crankshafts due to its high strength and durability.

  1. The trade name of non-ferrous cast alloy composed of cobalt, chromium and tungsten is called

(A) ceramic
(B) stellite
(C) diamond
(D) cemented carbide

The correct option is (B) stellite
Explanation Stellite is a non-ferrous cast alloy made of cobalt, chromium, and tungsten, used for cutting tools and wear-resistant surfaces.

  1. The first law of thermodynamics furnishes the relationship between

(A) various thermodynamic processes
(B) various properties of steam
(C) heat, work and the properties of steam
(D) heat and work

The correct option is (D) heat and work
Explanation The first law of thermodynamics relates heat and work, stating that energy cannot be created or destroyed.

  1. Enthalpy is calculated as the

(A) sum of internal energy and product of pressure and volume of the system
(B) sum of internal energy and product of pressure and density of the system
(C) difference between internal energy and product of pressure and density
(D) difference between internal energy and product of pressure and volume of the system

The correct option is (A) sum of internal energy and product of pressure and volume of the system
Explanation Enthalpy is calculated as the internal energy plus the product of pressure and volume of the system (H = U + PV).

  1. The relation between C_{P} and c_{v} (with usual notation) is

(A) C_{P} – C_{V} = R
(B) C_{P}/C_{V} = gamma
(C) C_{P} – C_{V} = R/J
(D) All of the above

The correct option is (D) All of the above
Explanation The relations (A), (B) , (C) and are valid thermodynamic equations involving specific heats.

  1. The isothermal process of a system follows which law?

(A) Charle’s law
(B) Boyle’s law
(C) Gay-Lussac law
(D) All of the above

The correct option is (B) Boyle’s law
Explanation An isothermal process follows Boyle's law, which states that the pressure of a gas is inversely proportional to its volume at constant temperature.

  1. If heat Q flows reversibly from the system to the surroundings at T_{0}’ what will be the effect on entropy

(A) Entropy of the system is reduced by Q/T_{0}
(B) System has lost entropy to the surroundings.
(C) Entropy increases to the surroundings is Q/T_{0}
(D) All of the above

The correct option is (D) All of the above
Explanation When heat flows reversibly from a system, the system loses entropy by , while the surroundings gain the same amount of entropy.

  1. A self-locking simple machine has

(A) efficiency 100%
(B) efficiency 50%
(C) efficiency > 50%
(D) efficiency 50%

The correct option is (C) efficiency > 50%
Explanation A self-locking simple machine has efficiency greater than 50%, ensuring that the load cannot descend on its own.

  1. When a body of mass m attains a velocity v from rest in time t, then the kinetic energy of translation is

(A) m * v ^ 2
(B) 0 * 5m * v ^ 2
(C) 0 * 67m * v ^ 2
(D) All of the above

The correct option is (B) 0.5m * v²
Explanation The kinetic energy of a body in translation is given by .

  1. If three coplanar like parallel forces acting on a beam having the magnitude 2 N, 1 kgf, 4 N, the resultant of these forces shall be (g = 10m / (s ^ 2))

(A) 7 N
(B) 6 N
(C) 16 N
(D) All of the above.

The correct option is (B) 6 N
Explanation Converting to , the resultant force is , reduced by opposite force for balanced conditions.

  1. The angle of banking on a circular path of a road is provided so that the resultant of the centrifugal force and weight of car fall

(A) at an angle more than 90″
(B) at an angle less than 90°
(C) at an angle 90°
(D). None of the above

The correct option is (C) at an angle 90°
Explanation The banking of a road ensures that the resultant of centrifugal force and weight passes through the center of the curve, maintaining equilibrium.

  1. In a gas turbine cycle with regeneration.

(A) pressure ratio increases
(B) work output decreases
(C) thermal efficiency increases
(D) heat input increases

The correct option is (C) thermal efficiency increases
Explanation Regeneration in a gas turbine increases thermal efficiency by recovering heat from the exhaust gases and preheating the compressed air.

  1. In a diesel engine, heat addition takes place

(A) at constant pressure
(B) at constant volume
(C) isothermally
(D) adiabatically

The correct option is (A) at constant pressure
Explanation In a diesel engine, heat addition occurs at constant pressure, as described in the Diesel cycle.

  1. Which of the following events would reduce the volumetric efficiency of a vertical compression (Cl) engine?

(A) Exhaust valve closing after TDC
(B) Inlet valve closing after BDC
(C) Inlet valve closing before BDC
(D) Inlet valve opening before TDC

The correct option is (B) Inlet valve closing after BDC
Explanation If the inlet valve closes after BDC, some fresh charge is lost during the compression stroke, reducing volumetric efficiency.

  1. In a two-stroke petrol engine suction stroke volume found to be 20 m³ and clearance volume is 4 m³. The compression ratio will be

(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 1-2
(D) None of the above

The correct option is (A) 5
Explanation The compression ratio is calculated as .

  1. The COP of a domestic refrigerator

(A) is less than 1
(B) is equal to 1
(C) is more than 1
(D) depends upon the weather condition

The correct option is (C) is more than 1
Explanation The Coefficient of Performance (COP) of a domestic refrigerator is typically greater than 1 because the amount of heat removed from the refrigerated space is more than the work input.

  1. The vapour compression refrigerator employs which of the following cycles?

(A) Reversed Rankine
(B) Carnot
(C) Reversed Carnot
(D) Rankine

The correct option is (C) Reversed Carnot
Explanation A vapour compression refrigeration system operates on a reversed Carnot cycle, improving cooling efficiency.

  1. The process of augmenting the engine power by raising the pressure of charge fed into the engine cylinder is called

(A) scavenging
(B) supercharging
(C) pumping
(D) doping

The correct option is (B) supercharging
Explanation Supercharging increases engine power by compressing the intake air or fuel-air mixture before it enters the cylinder.

  1. In ammonia water vapour absorption refrigeration system

(A) ammonia is absorbent and water is refrigerant
(B) ammonia is refrigerant and water is absorbent
(C) both ammonia and water are refrigerant
(D) both ammonia and water are absorbent

The correct option is (B) ammonia is refrigerant and water is absorbent
Explanation In the ammonia-water vapour absorption system, ammonia acts as the refrigerant, and water serves as the absorbent.

  1. Heat treatment operation involving heating of steel above upper critical temperature and cooling it in air is known as

(A) normalising
(B) tempering
(C) annealing
(D) stress relieving

The correct option is (A) normalising
Explanation Normalising involves heating steel above its upper critical temperature and allowing it to cool in air to refine grain structure and improve toughness.

  1. Mild steel belongs to which of the following categories?

(A) High carbon steel
(B) Medium carbon steel
(C) Low carbon steel
(D) Alloy steel

The correct option is (C) Low carbon steel
Explanation Mild steel is classified as low carbon steel, with a carbon content typically below 0.25%.

  1. Solder is an alloy consisting of

(A) lead and tin
(B) tin and copper
(C) lead and copper
(D) lead and zinc

The correct option is (A) lead and tin
Explanation Solder is an alloy of lead and tin, used for joining metals in electronics and plumbing.

  1. Steel is primarily designated according to

(A) alloying elements
(B) carbon content
(C) iron content
(D) tensile strength

The correct option is (B) carbon content
Explanation Steel is primarily classified based on its carbon content, which determines its properties and applications.

  1. The cutting tool on a milling machine is mounted on

(A) arbor
(B) spindle
(C) column
(D) knee

The correct option is (A) arbor
Explanation In a milling machine, the cutting tool is mounted on an arbor, which holds and drives the tool during machining.

  1. Which of the following screw threads is adopted for power transmission in either direction?

(A) ACME thread
(B) Square thread
(C) Buttress thread
(D) Multiple thread

The correct option is (B) Square thread
Explanation Square threads are used for power transmission in both directions due to their high efficiency and strength.

  1. An Allen bolt

(A) is self-locking bolt
(B) is provided with countersunk head
(C) has a hexagonal depression in its head
(D) has both ends threaded

The correct option is (C) has a hexagonal depression in its head
Explanation: An Allen bolt is characterized by its hexagonal depression in the head, which is designed for use with an Allen wrench

  1. Which key is provided in pairs at right angles and each key with- stands torsion in one-direction only?

(A) Sunk key
(B) Flat saddle key
(C) Tangent key
(D) Hollow saddle key

The correct option is (C) Tangent key
Explanation: A tangent key is provided in pairs at right angles, with each key designed to withstand torsion in one direction only.

  1. Identify the bearing in which one end of the shaft rests within the bearing.

(A) Footstep or pivot bearing
(B) Collar bearing
(C) Bush bearing
(D) Journal bearing

The correct option is (A) Footstep or pivot bearing
Explanation: In a footstep or pivot bearing, one end of the shaft rests within the bearing, often used for supporting rotating shafts.

  1. In third angle orthographic projection, the front view lies

(A) below reference axis
(B) above ground level
(C) between reference axis and ground level
(D) All of the above

The correct option is (D) All of the above
Explanation: In third angle orthographic projection, the front view can be below, above, or between the reference axis and ground level, depending on the specific drawing conventions.

  1. In a shaper

(A) tool is stationary and work reciprocates
(B) tool moves over the stationary work
(C) tool moves over the reciprocating work
(D) work is stationary and tool reciprocates

The correct option is (D) work is stationary and tool reciprocates
Explanation: In a shaper, the tool moves over the stationary work, performing the cutting action with a reciprocating motion.

  1. In planer machine, the work that is supported on the table ___against the stationary cutting tool.

(A) oscillates
(B) vibrates
(C) reciprocates
(D) Both (A) and (C)

The correct option is (C) reciprocates
Explanation: In a planer machine, the work is supported on the table and reciprocates against the stationary cutting tool.

  1. Which of the following methods is usually used to weld gray cast iron?

(A) TIG welding
(B) MIG welding
(C) Gas welding
(D) Arc welding

The correct option is (C) Gas welding
Explanation: Gray cast iron is often welded using gas welding methods due to the heat distribution and flexibility it offers for casting materials.

  1. Flank wear occurs mainly on

(A) cutting edge
(B) nose part and top face
(C) face of the cutting tool at a short distance from the cutting edge
(D) nose part, front relief face and side relief face of the cutting tool

The correct option is (C) face of the cutting tool at a short distance from the cutting edge
Explanation: Flank wear primarily occurs on the face of the cutting tool, just a short distance from the cutting edge, as it is exposed to high friction.

  1. Which of the following aspects pertains to climb milling during machining operation?

(A) Gradual increase in chip thickness
(B) Enable the cutter to dig in and start the cut
(C) Reduce consumption specific power
(D) Better surface finish

The correct option is (D) Better surface finish
Explanation: Climb milling results in a better surface finish because the cutter moves in the direction of the workpiece's rotation, leading to a smoother cut.

  1. Removal of metal in a drilling operation is by

(A) shearing
(B) compression
(C) extrusion
(D) shearing and extrusion

The correct option is (A) shearing
Explanation: The removal of metal in a drilling operation happens primarily through shearing, where the cutting tool slices through the material.

  1. Poisson’s ratio is defined as the ratio of

(A) lateral stress and longitudinal stress
(B) longitudinal stress and longitudinal strain
(C) longitudinal stress and lateral stress
(D) lateral stress and lateral strain.

The correct option is (A) lateral stress and longitudinal stress
Explanation: Poisson’s ratio is the ratio of lateral stress to longitudinal stress.

  1. In the Euler’s formula for buckling ΕΙ load Pgn, the value of n is 2 least in case of column with condition

(A) both ends are fixed
(B) one end is fixed and other end is free
(C) one end is fixed and other end is hinged
(D) both ends are hinged

The correct option is (B) one end is fixed and other end is free
Explanation: In Euler’s formula for buckling, the value of n is least (2) for a column with one end fixed and the other free.

  1. A column whose slenderness ratio is less than 80 is

(A) long column
(B) medium column
(C) short column
(D) weak column

The correct option is (C) short column
Explanation: A column with a slenderness ratio less than 80 is classified as a short column.

  1. The maximum strain energy that can be stored in a body is known as

(A) impact energy
(B) resilience
(C) proof resilience
(D) modulus of resilience

The correct option is (C) proof resilience
Explanation: The maximum strain energy that a body can store is called proof resilience.

  1. The property of a fluid which enables it to resist tensile stress is known as

(A) compressibility
(B) surface tension
(C) cohesion
(D) adhesion

The correct option is (C) cohesion
Explanation: The property of a fluid that enables it to resist tensile stress is cohesion.

  1. The function of a Governor is to

(A) store energy and give up whenever required
(B) adjust variation of speed by varying the input to the engine
(C) decrease variation of speed
(D) increase variation of speed

The correct option is (B) adjust variation of speed by varying the input to the engine
Explanation: The function of a governor is to adjust the variation in speed by varying the input to the engine.

  1. Coriolis component of acceleration exists whenever a point moves along a path that has

(A) linear motion
(B) tangential acceleration
(C) rotational motion
(D) centripetal acceleration

The correct option is (C) rotational motion
Explanation: Coriolis acceleration exists whenever a point moves along a path with rotational motion.

  1. Inversion of a kinematic chain

(A) modifies relative motion of one link relative to another
(B) completely changes the motion of links relative to each other
(C) keeps relative motion of the link unchanged with respect to one another
(D) has no effect on absolute motion of links

The correct option is (A) modifies relative motion of one link relative to another
Explanation: Inversion of a kinematic chain modifies the relative motion of one link relative to another.

  1. The type of pair formed by two elements which are so connected that one is constrained to turn or revolve about a fixed axis of another element is known as

(A) turning pair
(B) rolling pair
(C) sliding pair
(D) spherical pair

The correct option is (A) turning pair
Explanation: A turning pair is formed when two elements are connected, and one is constrained to revolve about a fixed axis of the other.

  1. In the impulse turbine, the steam expands

(A) in the nozzle
(B) in the blades
(C) partly in nozzle and partly in blades
(D) neither in nozzle nor in blades

The correct option is (A) in the nozzle
Explanation: In an impulse turbine, steam expands in the nozzle.

  1. Heat is transferred by all three modes viz., conduction, convection and radiation in

(A) electric heater
(B) boiler
(C) steam condenser
(D) melting of ice

The correct option is (B) boiler
Explanation: In a boiler, heat is transferred by conduction, convection, and radiation.

  1. The economizer is used in boilers to

(A) use more fuel
(B) increase flue gas temperature
(C) heat feed water by bleeding steam
(D) increase thermal efficiency of boiler

The correct option is (D) increase thermal efficiency of boiler
Explanation: The economizer is used in boilers to increase the thermal efficiency by heating the feed water.

  1. Which is the basic raw material of the nuclear plant?

(A) Uranium
(B) Thorium
(C) Radium
(D) Plutonium

The correct option is (A) Uranium
Explanation: The basic raw material for a nuclear plant is uranium.

  1. Honing operation is used to

(A) harden a surface
(B) finish holes
(C) provide a very close fit between two contact surfaces
(D) remove the grinding and tools makes left by previous operation

The correct option is (B) finish holes
Explanation: Honing is used to finish holes and improve surface accuracy.

  1. Which of the following wage incentive plans guarantees minimum wage to a worker and bonus paid for the fixed percentage of time saved?

(A) Halsey plan
(B) Gantt plan
(C) Rowan plan
(D) Emerson’s efficiency plan

The correct option is (A) Halsey plan
Explanation: The Halsey plan guarantees a minimum wage to a worker and provides a bonus for time saved.

  1. Which of the following charts gives simultaneous information about progress of work and machine?

(A) Process chart
(B) Machine load chart
(C) Man-machine chart
(D) Gantt chart

The correct option is (C) Man-machine chart
Explanation: The man-machine chart gives simultaneous information about the progress of work and the machine.

  1. PERT requires

(A) single time estimate
(B) double time estimate
(C) triple time estimate
(D) None of the above

The correct option is (C) triple time estimate
Explanation: PERT (Program Evaluation and Review Technique) requires triple time estimates: optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely.

  1. In manufacturing management, the term ‘despatching’ is used to describe

(A) dispatch of sales order
(B) dispatch of factory mail
(C) dispatch of finished product of the user
(D) dispatch of work orders through shop floor

The correct option is (D) dispatch of work orders through shop floor
Explanation: In manufacturing management, 'despatching' refers to the dispatch of work orders through the shop floor.

  1. Work study is concerned with

(A) improving present method and finding standard time
(B) motivation of workers
(C) improving production capability
(D) improving production, planning and control

The correct option is (A) improving present method and finding standard time
Explanation: Work study is concerned with improving the present method and finding the standard time.

  1. The Rateau turbine belongs to the category of

(A) pressure compounded turbine
(B) reaction turbine
(C) velocity compounded turbine
(D) radial flow turbine

The correct option is (C) velocity compounded turbine
Explanation: The Rateau turbine belongs to the category of velocity-compounded turbines.

  1. Blades of gas turbine are generally made of

(A) aluminium
(B) cast iron
(C) cast steel
(D) nickel-cobalt alloy

The correct option is (D) nickel-cobalt alloy
Explanation: Blades of gas turbines are made from materials that can withstand high temperatures, and nickel-cobalt alloys are known for their ability to resist heat and wear in such conditions.

  1. The process of producing energy by utilizing heat trapped inside earth surface is called

(A) hydrothermal energy
(B) geothermal energy
(C) solar energy
(D) wave energy

The correct option is (B) geothermal energy
Explanation: Geothermal energy refers to the process of harnessing heat from beneath the earth's surface to produce energy.

  1. When solar radiation falls on the earth’s surface, the temperature of

(A) land mass rises faster than water mass
(B) land mass rises slower than water mass
(C) land mass and water mass rise uniformly
(D) only land mass increases and water mass remains at fixed temperature

The correct option is (A) land mass rises faster than water mass
Explanation: Land heats up more quickly than water because it has a lower specific heat capacity, leading to faster temperature increases when solar radiation falls on it.

  1. Bio-diesel is

(A) obtained from fermentation of sugar
(B) obtained from pyrolysis process
(C) exudates of plants
(D) an upgraded vegetable oil

The correct option is (D) an upgraded vegetable oil
Explanation: Bio-diesel is produced by converting vegetable oils into a more refined form that can be used as fuel.

  1. The function of differential gear in an automobile is to

(A) facilitate reverse operation of the vehicle
(B) reduce tyre wear at high speed
(C) distribute equal torque between wheels
(D) take care of difference of speed of real wheels

The correct option is (D) take care of difference of speed of real wheels
Explanation: The differential gear in an automobile allows the wheels to rotate at different speeds, which is necessary when turning corners.

  1. The object of suspension system is to

(A) prevent the road shock from being transmitted to the vehicle components
(B) safeguard the occupants from the road shocks
(C) preserve the stability of the vehicle in pitching or rolling while in motion
(D) All of the above

The correct option is (D) All of the above
Explanation: The suspension system in a vehicle serves multiple functions, including protecting the vehicle from road shocks, safeguarding occupants, and maintaining stability during motion.

  1. In IC engine, the power developed inside the cylinder is known as

(A) brake horsepower
(B) frictional horsepower
(C) indicated horsepower
(D) pumping power

The correct option is (C) indicated horsepower
Explanation: Indicated horsepower is the power developed inside the cylinder of an internal combustion engine, before considering losses like friction.

  1. Human Resource Management (HRM) aims to maximise employees’ as well as organization’s

(A) performativity
(B) economy
(C) efficiency
(D) effectiveness

The correct option is (D) effectiveness
Explanation: Human Resource Management aims to maximize both employee performance and the overall effectiveness of the organization.

  1. Gas turbine uses which of the following types of air compressor?

(A) Centrifügal type
(B) Axial flow type
(C) Reciprocating type
(D) Rotary type

The correct option is (B) Axial flow type
Explanation: Gas turbines typically use axial flow compressors, which allow for continuous compression of air.

  1. What is the least micrometer? count of

(A) 0-1 mm
(B) 0-02 mm
(C) 0-01 mm
(D) 0-2 mm

The correct option is (C) 0-01 mm
Explanation: The least count of a micrometer is the smallest measurement that can be accurately measured, typically 0.01 mm in most standard micrometers.

  1. The degree of closeness of the measured value of certain quantity with its true value is known as

(A) accuracy
(B) precision
(C) standard
(D) sensitivity

The correct option is (A) accuracy
Explanation: Accuracy refers to how close a measured value is to the true or accepted value of a quantity.

  1. In the annuity method of depreciation, interest is charged on

(A) depreciation annuity
(B) book value of the asset
(C) salvage value of the asset
(D) sum of depreciation annuity and book value of the asset

The correct option is (B) book value of the asset
Explanation: In the annuity method of depreciation, interest is charged on the book value of the asset, which reflects the remaining value after depreciation.

  1. ‘Go’ and ‘No Go’ gauge are types of

(A) plug gauge
(B) step gauge
(C) ring gauge
(D) limit gauge

The correct option is (D) limit gauge
Explanation: 'Go' and 'No Go' gauges are types of limit gauges used to check whether a part is within specified tolerance limits.

  1. Expressing a dimension as 2520-05 mm is done in the case of

(A) unilateral dimension
(B) bilateral dimension
(C) limiting dimension
(D) All of the above

The correct option is (B) bilateral dimension
Explanation: A bilateral dimension expresses a tolerance with both upper and lower limits, as seen in 2520-05 mm, indicating variation on both sides of the nominal value.

  1. CAD/CAM is the relationship between

(A) design and manufacturing
(B) science and engineering
(C) manufacturing and marketing
(D) design and marketing

The correct option is (A) design and manufacturing
Explanation: CAD/CAM (Computer-Aided Design/Computer-Aided Manufacturing) is the integration of design and manufacturing processes to improve efficiency.

  1. The common electrolyte in electrochemical machining process is

(A) water
(B) transformer oil
(C) kerosene
(D) brine solution

The correct option is (D) brine solution
Explanation: Brine solution, which is a mixture of water and salt, is commonly used as the electrolyte in the electrochemical machining process.

  1. Which of the following methods uses the combination of electrical and chemical energy for machining?

(A) Ultrasonic machining
(B) Abrasive Jet machining
(C) Electro-chemical machining
(D) Electron beam machining

The correct option is (C) Electro-chemical machining
Explanation: Electro-chemical machining (ECM) uses both electrical and chemical energy to remove material, making it effective for certain high-precision applications.

  1. Which of the following processes can be used to produce very small diameter holes?

(A) Electric discharge machining
(B) Electro-chemical machining
(C) Water jet machining
(D) Electron beam machining

The correct option is (A) Electric discharge machining
Explanation: Electric discharge machining (EDM) is commonly used for producing very small diameter holes by using electrical discharges to remove material.

  1. In a petrol engine, the tendency of detonation increases with

(A) supercharging
(B) retarded spark timing
(C) running the engine at high speed
(D) increasing the cooling rate

The correct option is (A) supercharging
Explanation: Supercharging increases the amount of air and fuel mixture in the engine, which increases pressure and temperature, thereby promoting detonation.

  1. Aircraft body has

(A) precast structure
(B) welded structure
(C) riveted structure
(D) bolted structure

The correct option is (C) riveted structure
Explanation: Aircraft bodies commonly use a riveted structure, where metal parts are joined together with rivets for strength and flexibility.


APSC Motor Vehicle Inspector (MVI) Mechanical Engineer (2024) , APSC General Studies 2023 Questions, APSC Exam Solved Paper PDF, APSC Previous Year Question Paper, APSC Question Paper with Answers

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