DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO
Test Booklet No. : 00225
TEST BOOKLET
(Drugs and Narcotics and General Studies)
Time Allowed: 2 Hours Full Marks: 100
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The capital of Bangladesh is
(A) Chennai (B) London (C) Dhaka (D) Dhubri
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N.B. There will be negative marking @ 0-25 per 1 (one) mark against each wrong answer.
Which of the following is the ground- state electronic configuration of Na?
The correct option is (C) 1s² 2s² 2p⁶.
Explanation: Sodium (Na) has an atomic number of 11, meaning it has 11 electrons. The electrons fill the orbitals in order of increasing energy: 1s²: 2 electrons 2s²: 2 electrons 2p⁶: 6 electrons This accounts for all 10 electrons in the first two energy levels, with the remaining 1 electron going into the 3s orbital.
The correct option is(B) C₁₀H₂₀.
Explanation: Terpenes are hydrocarbons made up of isoprene units (C₅H₈), and they generally follow the formula C₁₀H₂₀ for monoterpenes, which consist of two isoprene units. This is the most common formula for simple terpenes, though more complex terpenes can have different formulas.
Menthone has chiral centres and different stercoisomers.
(A) 2,6 (B) 4,6 (C) 2,4 (D) 3,6
The correct option is (A) 2,6 Menthone has chiral centers at positions 2 and 6, leading to different stereoisomers.
To prepare 50 mM stock solution of NaCl with final volume 5 ml, how much NaCl is required?
The correct option is (A) 4.61 mg.
Explanation: To prepare a 50 mM solution of NaCl, use the formula: Mass of NaCl = M × V × M_NaCl Where: - M = molarity = 50 mM = 0.05 mol/L - V = volume = 5 mL = 0.005 L - M_NaCl = molar mass of NaCl = 58.44 g/mol Mass of NaCl = 0.05 × 0.005 × 58.44 = 0.01461 g = 4.61 mg Thus, 4.61 mg of NaCl is required.
Which one of the following is used as catalyst in shift converter?
(A) Nickel (B) Alumina (C) Silica gel (D) Vanadium
The correct option is (A) Nickel.
Explanation: In the shift converter, which is part of the water-gas shift reaction, nickel is commonly used as a catalyst to accelerate the conversion of carbon monoxide and water into carbon dioxide and hydrogen.
The chemical formula for starch is
(A) (C_{6}H_{10}O_{2}) * pi (B) (C_{6}H_{12}O_{4}) * n (C) (C_{6}H_{12}O_{12}) m (D) (C_{6}H_{10}O_{5}) * n
The correct option is D) (C₆H₁₀O₅) n
Explanation: The chemical formula for starch is often represented as (C₆H₁₀O₅)ₙ, where n represents the number of repeating glucose units. Starch is a polysaccharide made up of glucose molecules connected by glycosidic bonds.
An isotope of caesium (Cs-137) has a half-life of 30 years. If 10g of Cs-137 disintegrates over a period of 90 years, how many grams of Cs-137 would remain?
(A) 1-25 g (B) 0-125 g (C) 0-00125 g (D) 12-5 g
The correct option is (A) 1.25 g.
Explanation: The half-life of Cs-137 is 30 years. In 90 years, which is 3 half-lives, the amount of Cs-137 decreases as follows: - After 30 years: 10g → 5g - After 60 years: 5g → 2.5g - After 90 years: 2.5g → 1.25g Thus, 1.25g of Cs-137 would remain.
The correct option is (D) C₁₉H₃₀O₂.
Explanation: Testosterone is a steroid hormone with the chemical formula C₁₉H₃₀O₂. It consists of 19 carbon atoms, 30 hydrogen atoms, and 2 oxygen atoms.
According to IUPAC nomenclature, sodium nitroprusside is named as
The correct option is (B) sodium pentacyanonitrosylferrate(II).
Explanation: According to IUPAC nomenclature, sodium nitroprusside is named sodium pentacyanonitrosylferrate(II). It consists of a central iron ion coordinated to five cyanide (CN⁻) groups and one nitrosyl (NO) group. The oxidation state of iron in this compound is +2, hence the (II) in the name.
Which of the following is not a pK value of phosphoric acid?
(A) 2-16 (B) 5-35 (C) 7-21 (D) 12-32
The correct option is C) 7.21
Explanation: Phosphoric acid (H₃PO₄) has three pK values corresponding to the ionization of its three protons. The typical pK values for phosphoric acid are: - pK₁ ≈ 2.16 - pK₂ ≈ 7.35 - pK₃ ≈ 12.32 Since 7.21 is not close to the actual pK₂ value (7.35), option (C) is not a pK value of phosphoric acid.
The near IR region spectrum falls under the range of
(Α) 2:5 μ το 25 μ (Β) 25 μ. το 400 μ (C) 400 με το 800 μ (D) 800 με το 1200 μ
The correct option is (D) 800 με το 1200 μ.
Explanation: The near-infrared (NIR) region of the electromagnetic spectrum falls within the range of 800-1200 nanometers (nm) or 0.8-1.2 micrometers (μm).
The light source commonly used in Raman spectrophotometer is
The correct option is (D) xenon lamp, but more commonly used is Laser.
Explanation: In Raman spectrophotometry, a high-intensity monochromatic light source is required. Lasers are the most commonly used light source, but among the options provided, xenon lamp is also used in some Raman spectrophotometers.
Stokes shift is associated with which spectroscopy?
(A) UV-VIS (B) IR (C) Fluorescence (D) ESR
The correct option is (C) Fluorescence.
Explanation: Stokes shift is the difference between the wavelength of the absorbed light and the wavelength of the emitted light in fluorescence spectroscopy. It is a characteristic phenomenon observed in fluorescence spectroscopy.
Which of the following compounds. is IR inactive?
(A) CO (B) SO (C) NO (D) 02
The correct option is (D) O2.
Explanation: O2 is a homonuclear diatomic molecule, meaning it has two identical atoms. As a result, it does not have a permanent dipole moment, making it IR inactive.
Which of the following is not a part of HPLC instrumentation?
The correct option is (C) Carrier gas.
Explanation: Carrier gas is a component of Gas Chromatography (GC) instrumentation, not High-Performance Liquid Chromatography (HPLC). HPLC uses a pump to deliver the mobile phase (eluent), whereas GC uses a carrier gas to transport the sample through the column.
Which of the following is also known as bathochromic shift?
(A) Blue shift (B) Yellow shift (C) Red shift (D) Black shift
The correct option is (C) Red shift.
Explanation: A bathochromic shift refers to the phenomenon where the absorption spectrum of a compound shifts to a longer wavelength, typically resulting in a change from a shorter wavelength (e.g., UV) to a longer wavelength (e.g., visible, often appearing red). This is also known as a red shift.
Emission of light from triplet excited. state is known as
The correct option is (B) phosphorescence.
Explanation: Phosphorescence is a type of photoluminescence where light is emitted from a triplet excited state. This process occurs when a molecule absorbs light, promoting an electron to a triplet excited state, which then releases energy as light over a longer period. Fluorescence, on the other hand, involves emission from a singlet excited state.
Permanent dipole moment the principle of which of the following techniques?
(A) GC-MS (B) HS-GC (C) LC-MS (D) FT-IR
The correct option is (D) FT-IR.
Explanation: FT-IR (Fourier Transform InfraRed) spectroscopy is based on the principle that molecules with a permanent dipole moment can absorb and emit infrared radiation, resulting in characteristic absorption spectra. The presence of a permanent dipole moment is essential for a molecule to be IR active.
m/z ratio is used in which of the following techniques?
(A) UV spectrometry (B) IR spectrometry (C) Mass spectrometry (D) Raman spectrometry
The correct option is (C) Mass spectrometry.
Explanation: In mass spectrometry, the m/z ratio (mass-to-charge ratio) is used to identify and quantify ions based on their mass and charge. This ratio is a fundamental principle of mass spectrometry, allowing for the separation and detection of ions.
Acetaldehyde (CH3CHO) has an absorption peak at 160 nm. What type of transition is responsible for this absorption?
(A) n – π (B) π – π* (C) n – π* (D) σ – σ*
The correct option is (D) σ - σ*.
Explanation: An absorption peak at 160 nm corresponds to a high-energy transition, typically associated with σ - σ* transitions. These transitions involve the promotion of an electron from a σ bonding orbital to a σ* antibonding orbital.
The term IMFL stands for
(A) International-made Foreign liquor (B) Indian-made fruit liquor (C) Indonesia-made fruit liquor (D) Indian-made foreign liquor
The correct option is (D) Indian-made foreign liquor.
Explanation: IMFL is a term commonly used in the Indian liquor industry to refer to Indian-made foreign liquor, which includes spirits like whiskey, rum, gin, and vodka that are manufactured in India using international recipes and standards.
In the ester test for alcohol, a positive reaction will give
The correct option is (C) fruity odour.
Explanation: The ester test, also known as the lucas test, involves reacting an alcohol with a carboxylic acid (or an anhydride) in the presence of an acid catalyst. A positive reaction results in the formation of an ester, which typically has a fruity or floral odor.
For the analysis of blood alcohol, which of the following techniques is used?
(A) FT-IR (B) UV-VIS (C) HS-GC (D) Raman
The correct option is (C) HS-GC.
Explanation: Head Space Gas Chromatography (HS-GC) is a widely used technique for the analysis of blood alcohol. This method involves heating a blood sample in a sealed vial, allowing the volatile compounds (such as ethanol) to vaporize and then be separated and detected by gas chromatography.
Red handed trap cases are associated with which dye?
(A) Sypro orange (B) Congo red (C) Thioflavin T (D) Phenolphthalein
The correct option is (D) Phenolphthalein.
Explanation: Phenolphthalein is a dye used in red-handed trap cases to detect and identify individuals who have handled explosives or other chemicals. When phenolphthalein comes into contact with certain substances, it turns pink or red, providing a visual indication of exposure.
The correct option is (C) 2,4,6-trinitrophenol.
Explanation: Picric acid is a chemical compound with the molecular formula C6H2N3O7, and its structural formula is 2,4,6-trinitrophenol. It is a yellow, crystalline solid and a highly explosive compound.
The smoke point of a typical standard kerosene in
(A) 12-18 mm. (B) 18-22 mm (C) 22-26 mm (D) 26-30 mm
The correct option is (C) 22-26 mm.
Explanation: The smoke point of kerosene is a measure of its quality, indicating the maximum height of the wick at which the flame burns without producing smoke. A typical standard kerosene has a smoke point in the range of 22-26 mm.
Which of the following explosives is generally used in military boosters?
(A) Picric acid (B) Tetryl (C) RDX (D) PETN
The correct option is (B) Tetryl.
Explanation: Tetryl (2,4,6-trinitrophenylmethylnitramine) is a secondary explosive commonly used in military applications, particularly as a booster explosive. Boosters are used to amplify the detonation of a primary explosive, and tetryl is well-suited for this purpose due to its high explosive power and stability.
Which of the following explosives is the main component of C4 explosive?
(A) TNT (B) PETN (C) Tetryl (D) RDX
The correct option is (D) RDX.
Explanation: C4 (Composition-4) is a type of plastic explosive, and its main component is RDX (Cyclotrimethylene-trinitramine). RDX is a powerful and stable explosive that makes up about 91% of the C4 mixture.
Which one of the following is not a component of triple base not propellants?
The correct option is (D) Nitrotoluene.
Explanation: Triple-base propellants typically consist of three main components: Nitrocellulose (NC), Nitroglycerine (NG), and Nitroguanidine (NQ). Nitrotoluene is not a typical component of triple-base propellants.
For the extraction of inorganic residue from a post-blast scene, which solvent is used?
(A) Acetone (B) Hot water (C) Pyridine (D) Ether
The correct option is (B) Hot water.
Explanation: Hot water is commonly used as a solvent for the extraction of inorganic residues, such as metal ions and salts, from post-blast scenes. This method is effective for dissolving and recovering water-soluble residues, which can then be analyzed to help identify the explosive material used.
Crack is the street name for which of the following drugs?
(A) Heroin (B) Cocaine (C) MDMA (D) Morphine
The correct option is (B) Cocaine.
Explanation: Crack is a street name for a solid, smokable form of cocaine, typically produced by mixing powdered cocaine with baking soda and water, then heating it to produce a rock-like substance.
Which agency is the nodal agency for NDPS in India?
(A) CBI (B) ED (C) NCB (D) IT
The correct option is (C) NCB.
Explanation: The Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB) is the nodal agency for the enforcement of the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances (NDPS) Act in India. The NCB is responsible for coordinating and enforcing efforts to combat illicit trafficking in narcotics and psychotropic substances.
Which of the following is a Novel Psychotropic Substance?
(A) Cocaine (B) Morphine (C) Heroin (D) Fentanyl
The correct option is (D) Fentanyl.
Explanation: Fentanyl is a synthetic opioid that is considered a Novel Psychotropic Substance (NPS). NPS refers to a new or emerging psychoactive substance that is not controlled under the international drug control conventions, but poses a public health threat due to its potential for abuse and harm.
Which of the following substances is potent hallucinogen?
(A) Cocaine (B) Heroin (C) LSD (D) MDMA
The correct option is (C) LSD.
Explanation: Lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD) is a potent hallucinogenic substance that alters perception, mood, and a host of cognitive processes. It is known for producing intense visual and auditory hallucinations, distorted sense of time, and altered perception of reality.
For the detection of MDMA, which chemical test is used?
(A) Simon’s reagent test (B) Scott test (C) Dille-Koppanyi test (D) Fujiwara test
The correct option is (A) Simon's reagent test.
Explanation: Simon's reagent test is a chemical test used to detect the presence of MDMA (3,4-methylenedioxymethamphetamine) and other related compounds. The test involves adding a reagent to a sample suspected of containing MDMA, which produces a distinct color change if the substance is present.
Which one of the following is not a barbiturate drug?
The correct option is (A) Diazepam.
Explanation: Diazepam is a benzodiazepine, not a barbiturate. Barbiturates are a class of sedative-hypnotic drugs that include Allobarbital, Pentobarbital, and Phenobarbitone. Benzodiazepines, like Diazepam, are a different class of sedative-hypnotic drugs.
Which of the following substances is obtained from a cactus?
The correct option is (C) Mescaline.
Explanation: Mescaline is a naturally occurring psychedelic compound found in certain species of cacti, particularly the peyote cactus (Lophophora williamsii). It has been used for centuries in traditional Native American spiritual and medicinal practices.
Which of the following substances is known as ‘magic mushroom’?
(A) Heroin (B) Psilocybin (C) Morphine (D) Ergot
The correct option is (B) Psilocybin.
Explanation: Psilocybin is a naturally occurring psychedelic compound found in certain species of mushrooms, commonly referred to as magic mushrooms. These mushrooms have been used for centuries in traditional healing and spiritual practices, particularly in indigenous cultures in Mexico and South America.
Which psychotropic substance originated from a fungus?
(A) Morphine (B) LSD (C) Ganja (D) Cannabis
The correct option is (B) LSD.
Explanation: LSD (Lysergic acid diethylamide) is a semi-synthetic psychedelic substance that originated from a fungus, specifically the ergot fungus (Claviceps purpurea), which grows on certain grains, such as rye. The ergot fungus produces lysergic acid, which is used as a precursor to synthesize LSD.
For the analysis of psilocybin using Ehrlich’s reagent test, which colour is observed with a positive reaction?
(A) Violet colour (B) Green colour (C) Orange colour (D) Black colour
The correct option is (A) Violet colour.
Explanation: Ehrlich's reagent test is a chemical test used to detect the presence of psilocybin, a psychedelic compound found in certain mushrooms. When Ehrlich's reagent is added to a sample containing psilocybin, a positive reaction is indicated by the appearance of a violet colour.
The correct option is (A) Aconite.
Explanation: Aconite, also known as monk's hood or wolf's bane, is a plant-based poison that is often referred to as the sweet poison due to its sweet, honey-like taste. However, it is extremely toxic and can be fatal if ingested.
The document known as Ebers Papyrus originates from which nation?
(A) India (B) China (C) Rome (D) Egypt
The correct option is (D) Egypt.
Explanation: The Ebers Papyrus is an ancient Egyptian medical text that dates back to around 1550 BCE. It is one of the oldest and most important medical papyri from ancient Egypt, containing a vast collection of remedies, diagnoses, and treatments for various ailments.
Which of the following poisons is also one of the natural water pollutants?
The correct option is (B) Arsenic.
Explanation: Arsenic is a naturally occurring element that can be found in soil, water, and air. It is also a known poison. Arsenic can contaminate groundwater through natural geological processes, making it a natural water pollutant. Exposure to arsenic through contaminated water can be toxic and even carcinogenic.
Which of the following poisons is not a rodenticide?
The correct option is (C) Monocrotophos. Explanation: Monocrotophos is an organophosphate insecticide, not a rodenticide. It is primarily used to control pests such as insects and mites on crops.
Methanol is metabolized into which of the following compounds?
The correct option is (C) Formic acid.
Explanation: Methanol is metabolized in the liver by the enzyme alcohol dehydrogenase to form formaldehyde, which is then further metabolized by the enzyme aldehyde dehydrogenase to form formic acid. Formic acid is the toxic metabolite responsible for the adverse effects of methanol poisoning.
Microwave digestion method is used for the extraction of
The correct option is (C) inorganic poisons.
Explanation: Microwave digestion is a laboratory technique used to break down and extract inorganic substances, such as metals and minerals, from samples. This method uses high-frequency microwave energy to heat and dissolve the sample in a solvent, typically a strong acid. The resulting solution can then be analyzed for the presence of inorganic poisons.
Separating funnel is used in which of the following extraction methods?
(A) LLE (B) SPE (C) SPME (D) Digestion
The correct option is (A) LLE.
Explanation: A separating funnel is typically used in Liquid-Liquid Extraction (LLE), a laboratory technique used to separate and extract a substance from a liquid mixture by using a solvent that is immiscible with the original liquid. The separating funnel allows for the separation of the two liquids based on their density differences.
Which of the following tests is used for the detection of heavy metals from the visceral material?
(A) Fujiwara test (B) Reinsch test (C) Marquis test (D) Scott test
The correct option is (B) Reinsch test.
Explanation: The Reinsch test is a chemical test used to detect the presence of heavy metals, such as arsenic, antimony, bismuth, and mercury, in biological samples, including visceral materials. The test involves heating the sample with a copper foil, which reacts with the heavy metal to produce a characteristic color change.
HS-GC works on which of the following principles?
(A) Pascal’s Law (B) Henry’s Gas Law (C) Newton’s Law (D) Ideal Gas Law
The correct option is (B) Henry's Gas Law.
Explanation: Headspace Gas Chromatography (HS-GC) works on the principle of Henry's Gas Law, which states that the amount of a gas dissolved in a liquid is directly proportional to the partial pressure of the gas above the liquid. In HS-GC, a sample is placed in a sealed vial and heated, allowing the volatile compounds to vaporize and accumulate in the headspace above the sample. The vaporized compounds are then analyzed by gas chromatography.
Which division of FSL receives the samples in the case of death by poisoning?
(A) NDPS (B) Serology (C) Toxicology (D) DNA
The correct option is (C) Toxicology.
Explanation: In the case of suspected death by poisoning, the samples are sent to the Toxicology division of the Forensic Science Laboratory (FSL) for analysis. The Toxicology division is responsible for detecting and identifying toxic substances, such as poisons, in biological samples like blood, urine, and tissues.
Which among the following is the oldest stock exchange in Asia?
(A) Bombay Stock Exchange (B) Shanghai Stock Exchange (C) Tokyo Stock Exchange (D) Hong Kong Stock Exchange
The correct option is (A) Bombay Stock Exchange.
Explanation: Established in 1875, the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) is the oldest stock exchange in Asia.
NITI Aayog or National Institution for Transforming India Aayog came into existence on
(A) Ist January, 2014 (B) 1st January, 2015 (C) 1st January, 2016 (D) Ist January, 2019
The correct option is (B) 1st January, 2015.
Explanation: NITI Aayog replaced the Planning Commission and was established on 1st January, 2015.
An unsolicited message sent over Internet in the form of an e-mail to a large number of users for the purpose of advertising phishing in known as
(A) spyware (B) malware (C) spam (D) junk
The correct option is (C) spam.
Explanation: Spam refers to unsolicited commercial emails sent to a large number of recipients, often for advertising or phishing purposes.
The correct option is (B) Paleontology.
Explanation: Paleontology is the scientific study of fossils, including their formation, composition, and classification.
The process of transferring files. from the Internet to your computer is called
The correct option is (A) downloading.
Explanation: Downloading refers to the process of transferring files from a remote server or the Internet to a local computer or device.
Which of the following groups contains only biodegradable items?
(A) Fruit-peels, cake and lime juice (B) Cake, wood and grass (C) Grass, flowers and leather (D) All of the above
The correct option is (D) All of the above.
Explanation: All the items listed in the options, such as fruit-peels, cake, lime juice, wood, grass, flowers, and leather, are biodegradable, meaning they can be broken down naturally by living organisms.
What is the common name of calcium oxychloride?
(A) Plaster of Paris (B) Slaked lime (C) Bleaching powder. (D) Green vitriol
The correct option is (C) Bleaching powder. Explanation: Bleaching powder is the common name for calcium oxychloride (CaOCl2).
Who was the first scientist to be awarded two Nobel Prizes?
(A) Linus Pauling (B) Albert Einstein (C) Marie Curie (D) Dorothy Hodgkin
The correct option is (C) Marie Curie.
Explanation: Marie Curie was awarded two Nobel Prizes, one in Physics (1903) and another in Chemistry (1911), making her the first scientist to achieve this distinction.
Who among the following served as the 46th Chief Justice of India?
The correct option is (A) solids.
Explanation: Sound travels faster through solids than through liquids or gases, due to the closer packing of molecules in solids.
Who among the following won the Golden Boot Award in the 2022 FIFA Football World Cup?
Among the following schemes. under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India was launched in December 2014 is a special drive to vaccinate all unvaccinated and partially vaccinated children under Universal Immunization Programme?
The correct option is (C) Mission Indradhanush.
Explanation: Mission Indradhanush was launched in December 2014 to immunize all unvaccinated and partially vaccinated children under the Universal Immunization Programme, aiming to strengthen immunization coverage in India.
Match each vaccine in List-I with the scientist/scientists who invented the vaccine from List-Il and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
The correct answer is (C)
A solution turns red litmus paper blue, its pH is likely to be
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 7 (D) 10
The correct option is (D) 10.
Explanation: Since the solution turns red litmus paper blue, it indicates that the solution is basic in nature. A pH of 10 is basic, whereas pH 2 and 4 are acidic, and pH 7 is neutral.
The Chief Minister of which State as an initiative towards pollution-free environment launched 200 electric buses on January 3, 20247
(A) Andhra Pradesh. (B) Gujarat (C) Assam (D) West Bengal
The correct option is (C) Assam
India’s first Solar Mission launched by Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) is known as
(A) IRS-1A (B) GSAT-6A (C) Aditya-L1 (D) INSAT-1A
The correct option is (C) Aditya-L1.
Explanation: Aditya-L1 is India's first Solar Mission launched by the Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO). It aims to study the Sun's corona, solar wind, and solar flares.
The Rang Ghar which is said to be one of the oldest surviving amphitheatres in Asia was built during the reign of
The correct option is (C) Swargadeo Pramatta Singha.
Explanation: The Rang Ghar, an ancient amphitheater, was built during the reign of Swargadeo Pramatta Singha, who ruled the Ahom kingdom in Assam from 1744 to 1751.
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
The correct code is (B)
A media service offered directly to the viewers via the Internet is known as
(A) satellite TV (B) broadcast (C) cable (D) over-the-top
The correct option is (D) over-the-top.
Explanation: Over-the-top (OTT) refers to a media service that offers content directly to viewers via the internet, bypassing traditional broadcast, cable, or satellite television platforms. Examples of OTT services include Netflix, Amazon Prime Video, and Disney+.
The unit of rate constant of a reaction represented with equation, rate = k * [A] ^ 2 * [B] ^ 2 is
(A) mol/2 L/2 s (B) s^-1 (C) mol L (D) mol L/s
”The
Match each coordination compound. in List-I with an appropriate pair of characteristics from List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
The correct option is (D)
Which of the following statements is wrong?
(A) Nitrogen cannot form a ds-pn bond (B) The stability of hydrides increases from NH_{3} to BiH, in group 15 of the periodic table (C) N_{2}O_{4} has two resonance structures (D) Single N-N bond is weaker than the single P-P bond.
The correct option is (B) The stability of hydrides increases from NH3 to BiH, in group 15 of the periodic table.
Explanation: The stability of hydrides actually decreases from NH3 to BiH in group 15 of the periodic table, due to the decrease in electronegativity and the increase in atomic size down the group.
In the following compounds the order of acidity is
A battery of e.m.f. 10 V and internal resistance 3 W is connected to resistor. If the current in the circuit in 0-5 A, the resistance of the resistor is
To find the resistance of the resistor, we can use Ohm's Law and the concept of internal resistance. Given: E.m.f. (E) = 10 V Internal resistance (r) = 3 Ω Current (I) = 0.5 A Total resistance (R) = ? Using the formula: E = I(R + r) 10 = 0.5(R + 3) 20 = R + 3 R = 17 Ω The correct option is (A) 17 Ω.
Enzymes that utilize ATP in phosphate transfer require an alkaline earth metal (M) as the cofactor, Min
The correct option is (A) magnesium.
Explanation: Magnesium (Mg2+) is a common cofactor for enzymes that utilize ATP in phosphate transfer reactions, such as kinases. It helps stabilize the ATP molecule and facilitates the transfer of phosphate groups.
The radius of which of the following orbits is the same as that of the first Bohr’s orbit of hydrogen atom?
(A) H * e deg * (n = 2) . (B) B * e ^ (beta*tau) * (n = 2) (C) Li^ 2* (n = 2) (D) Li^ 2+ (n = 3)
The correct option is (C) Li²⁺ (n = 2).
Explanation: The radius of the first Bohr orbit of a hydrogen atom is given by r = 0.53 Å. For a hydrogen-like ion, such as Li²⁺, the radius of the nth orbit is given by: r = (0.53 Å) × (Z²/n²) where Z is the atomic number (3 for Li) and n is the principal quantum number. For Li²⁺ (n = 2), the radius is: r = (0.53 Å) × (3²/2²) = 0.53 Å This is the same as the radius of the first Bohr orbit of the hydrogen atom.
Which of the following species contains three bond pairs and one lone pair around the central atom?
(A) BF_{3} (B) CO_{2} (C) PCI (D) H_{2}*O
The correct option is (D) H₂O.
Explanation: In H₂O, the central oxygen atom has three bond pairs (two O-H bonds and one lone pair) and one lone pair. This arrangement is consistent with the VSEPR theory, which predicts a bent or V-shape for the H₂O molecule.
a and bare van der Waals constants for gases. Chlorine is more easily liquefied than ethane because
(A) a and b for Cl_{2} > a and b for C_{2}H_{0} (B) a and b for Cl_{2} < a and b for C_{2}H_{6} (C) a for Cla for C_{2}H_{6} but for b for C_{2}H_{6} Cl_{2} > b (D) a for Cl_{2} > c for but b for Cl_{2}b for C_{2}*H_{6}
The correct option is (A) a and b for Cl₂ > a and b for C₂H₆.
Explanation: Chlorine (Cl₂) is more easily liquefied than ethane (C₂H₆) because it has stronger intermolecular forces, which are reflected in its van der Waals constants (a and b). - 'a' represents the attractive forces between molecules. - 'b' represents the repulsive forces between molecules. Since Cl₂ has higher values of 'a' and 'b' compared to C₂H₆, it indicates stronger intermolecular forces, making it more easily liquefied.
The current flows from A to B as shown in the figure below:
The direction of the induced current in the loop in
(A) along the straight line (B) clockwise (C) anti-clockwise (D) No induced e.m.f is produced
The correct option is (D) No induced e.m.f is produced.
Explanation: In the given scenario, the arrow indicates that the straight line (likely a wire or path) is moving parallel to the magnetic field lines. According to Faraday's Law of Electromagnetic Induction, an electromotive force (e.m.f.) is induced in a loop when there is a change in magnetic flux through the loop.
The appropriate reagent for the following transformation
(D) H 2 N − NH 2 H 2 N−NH 2 , KOH/ethylene glycol This choice corresponds to the Wolff-Kishner reduction, which is suitable for converting carbonyl compounds into hydrocarbons under basic conditions.
If a double-stranded DNA has 20% of cytosine, then the percentage. of adenine in the DNA will be
(A) 20% (B) 30% (C) 40% (D) 60%
The correct option is (B) 30%.
Explanation: According to Chargaff's rules, in a double-stranded DNA: - The percentage of adenine (A) is equal to the percentage of thymine (T). - The percentage of guanine (G) is equal to the percentage of cytosine (C). - The total percentage of A and G is equal to the total percentage of T and C, which is 100%. Given that cytosine (C) is 20%, guanine (G) will also be 20%. So, A + T = 100% - (G + C) = 100% - (20% + 20%) = 100% - 40% = 60% Since A = T, A = T = 60%/2 = 30% Therefore, the percentage of adenine in the DNA will be 30%.
Transmission of which among the following diseases takes place through contaminated food and water?
The correct options are (A) Amoebiasis and (C) Ascariasis.
Explanation: Both Amoebiasis and Ascariasis are intestinal infections caused by parasites, which can be transmitted through: - Contaminated food and water - Poor sanitation and hygiene - Fecal-oral route Amoebiasis is caused by the parasite Entamoeba histolytica, while Ascariasis is caused by the parasite Ascaris lumbricoides. Malaria (B) is transmitted through the bite of an infected mosquito, and Pneumonia (D) is typically caused by bacterial or viral infections, not through contaminated food and water.
Which among the following gases, Miller used in his experiment on origin of life?
(A) Methane (B) Water vapour (C) Ammonia (D) All of the above
The correct option is (D) All of the above.
Explanation: Stanley Miller's famous experiment in 1953 simulated the conditions of early Earth to investigate the origin of life. The gas mixture used in his experiment consisted of: 1. Methane (CH₄) 2. Ammonia (NH₃) 3. Water vapor (H₂O) These gases were thought to be present in the early Earth's atmosphere. Miller's experiment demonstrated the spontaneous generation of amino acids, the building blocks of life, from these simple molecules.
Which of the following has minimum wavelength?
(A) Blue light (B) Infrared rays (C) Microwave (D) Y-Rays
The correct option is (D) Y-Rays (also known as Gamma Rays).
Explanation: The electromagnetic spectrum is arranged from longer wavelengths to shorter wavelengths
The resistance R of a conductor depends on its length I and cross- sectional area A through the relation
(A) R = (pl)/A (B) R = A/(rho*I) (C) R = pLA (D) R = (IA)/rho
The correct option is (A) R = (ρl)/A.
Explanation: The resistance (R) of a conductor is directly proportional to its length (l) and inversely proportional to its cross-sectional area (A). The proportionality constant is the resistivity (ρ) of the material.
The standard electrode potentials of three metals X, Y and 2 are -1-2 V, +0-5V and – 3 * 0v respectively. The reducing power of these metals will be
(A) Z > X > Y (B) Y > X > Z (C) Y > Z > X (D) X > Y > Z
The correct option is (A) Z > X > Y.
Explanation: The reducing power of a metal is directly related to its standard electrode potential (E°). A more negative E° value indicates a greater tendency to lose electrons, which means a stronger reducing agent.
In a p-type silicon, which of the following statements is true?
(A) Electrons are majority carriers and trivalent atoms are the dopants. (B) Electrons are minority carriers and pentavalent atoms are the dopants. (C) Holes are minority carriers and pentavalent atoms are the dopants. (D) Holes are majority carriers and trivalent atoms are the dopants.
The correct option is (D) Holes are majority carriers and trivalent atoms are the dopants.
Explanation: In a p-type silicon, the semiconductor material is doped with a trivalent atom (typically boron), which has three valence electrons. This creates an excess of holes (positive charge carriers) in the material, making them the majority carriers.
The dimension of e.m.f. is
(A) [M * L ^ 2 * T ^ – 2 * A ^ – 1] ] (B) [M * L ^ 2 * T ^ – 3 * A ^ – 1] ] (C) [M * L ^ 2 * T ^ – 2 * A ^ – 2] ] (D) [M * L ^ 2 * T ^ – 3 * A ^ – 2] ]
”The
In the following reaction
The correct product (A) is option (D): C 6 H 5 N = N − C 6 H 4 NH 2 C 6 H 5 N=N−C 6 H 4 NH 2 This structure represents the azo compound formed by the coupling of benzene diazonium chloride with aniline.
Put the verb into the correct form:
I want to lose weight. I (not/eat) anything today.
(A) may not eat (B) will not cat (C) am not eating (D) did not eat
The correct option is (C) am not eating.
Explanation: The sentence I (not/eat) anything today is in the present simple tense, indicating a habitual or general truth. However, since the speaker is expressing a specific intention or decision related to their goal of losing weight, the present continuous tense am not eating is more suitable. It implies that the speaker has made a conscious decision not to eat anything that day.
Arrange the words in the correct order to form a meaningful sentence:
Our body takes in many toxins from P : we eat, and we must have Q : a process for purging these impurities R : the atmosphere and the food
(A) POR (B) RPO (C) OPR (D) ROP
The correct option is (D) ROP. Correct sentence: Our body takes in many toxins from the atmosphere and the food we eat, and we must have a process for purging these impurities.
Explanation: R: the atmosphere and the food (describes the sources of toxins) O: we eat (describes the action of consuming food) P: a process for purging these impurities (describes the necessary process for removing toxins)
Pick the correct option:
How she do that to us!
(A) would (B) must (C) shall (D) could
The correct option is (D) could. Correct sentence: How could she do that to us!
Explanation: The sentence is an expression of surprise, shock, or indignation. The auxiliary verb could is used to convey the speaker's astonishment or incredulity at the person's actions.
Pick the correct option:
Unfortunately, I have talent for music although I always wanted to be a singer.
(A) less (B) little (C) plenty of (D) just a little
The correct option is (B) little. Correct sentence: Unfortunately, I have little talent for music, although I always wanted to be a singer. Explanation: The sentence expresses a regret or disappointment. The word little indicates a small or insufficient amount of talent for music, which contrasts with the speaker's desire to be a singer.
Pick the correct option:
I talk to the manager?
(A) Might (B) May (C) Could (D) Would
The correct option is (C) Could. Correct sentence: Could I talk to the manager?
Explanation: The sentence is a polite request to speak with the manager. The auxiliary verb could is used to express possibility and make the request more courteous.
Identify the type of the sentence:
The big brown dog is at the gate.
(A) Simple (B) Compound (C) Complex (D) None of the above
The correct option is (A) Simple.
Explanation: A simple sentence is a sentence that has only one independent clause, which means it expresses a single complete thought. The sentence The big brown dog is at the gate meets this criteria, as it has: - A single subject (the big brown dog) - A single predicate (is at the gate) - No conjunctions or subordinate clauses
Which word means the same as delegate?
(A) Analyze (B) Respect (C) Criticize (D) Assign
The correct option is (D) Assign.
Explanation: Delegate means to give someone else the responsibility or authority to act on your behalf or to complete a task. Assign has a similar meaning, implying the act of giving someone a specific task or responsibility. Other synonyms for delegate could be entrust, empower, or authorize, but among the given options, assign is the closest match.
Which word is the opposite of demolish?
(A) Attend (B) Consider (C) Create (D) Stifle
The correct option is (C) Create.
Explanation: Demolish means to destroy or tear down something, usually a building or structure. The opposite of demolish would be to build or construct something, which is what create means. Other antonyms of demolish could be construct, build, or erect, but among the given options, create is the most suitable opposite.
Choose the correct option that best completes the comparison:
control dominate magnify:
(A) enlarge (B) preserve (C) decrease (D) divide
The correct option is (A) enlarge.
Explanation: The words control, dominate, and magnify all imply increasing or intensifying something. - Control implies directing or regulating something. - Dominate implies having power or influence over something. - Magnify implies making something larger or more intense. Similarly, enlarge means to make something bigger or more extensive, which fits the pattern of increasing or intensifying something.
For the following sentence, choose the correct homophone for the missing word:
My grandmother is an _ historian,
(A) imminent (B) immanent (C) eminent (D) None of the above
The correct option is (C) eminent.
Explanation: Eminent means distinguished, prominent, or renowned in a particular field. In this context, My grandmother is an eminent historian means that she is a highly respected and accomplished historian. The other options are incorrect because: - Imminent means about to happen or impending. - Immanent means inherent or existing within something. Both imminent and immanent have different meanings and pronunciations than eminent, although they are homophones.
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