DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO
TEST BOOKLET
Paper – II
(GENERAL AWARENESS AND DIFFERENT ACTS, RULES)
Time Allowed: 2 Hours Full Marks: 100
Read the following instructions carefully before you begin to answer the questions:
The name of the Subject, Roll Number as mentioned in the Admission Certificate, Test Booklet No. and Series are to be written legibly and correctly in the space provided on the Answer-Sheet with Black/Blue ballpoint pen.
Answer-Sheet without marking Series as mentioned above in the space provided for in the Answer-Sheet shall not be evaluated.
All questions carry equal marks.
The Answer-Sheet should be submitted to the Invigilator.
Directions for giving the answers: Directions for answering questions have already been issued to the respective candidates in the Instructions for marking in the OMR Answer-Sheet’ along with the Admit Card and Specimen Copy of the OMR Answer-Sheet.
Example:
Suppose the following question is asked:
The capital of Bangladesh is
(A) Chennai (B) London (C) Dhaka (D) Dhubri
You will have four alternatives in the Answer-Sheet for your response corresponding to each question Test Booklet as below: of the
In the above illustration, if your chosen response is alternative (C), Le., Dhaka, then the same should be marked on the Answer-Sheet by blackening the relevant circle with a Black/Blue ballpoint pen only as below:
The example shown above is the only correct method of answering.
Use of eraser, blade, chemical whitener fluid to rectify any response is prohibited.
Please ensure that the Test Booklet has the required number of pages (20) and 100 questions immediately after opening the Booklet. In case of any discrepancy, please report the same to the Invigilator.
No candidate shall be admitted to the Examination Hall/Room 20 minutes after the commencement of the examination
No candidate shall leave the Examination Hall/Room without prior permission of the Supervisor/Invigilator. No candidate shall be permitted to hand over his/her Answer-Sheet and leave the Examination Hall/Room before expiry of the full time allotted for each paper.
No Mobile Phone, Electronic Communication Device, etc., are allowed to be carried inside the Examination Hall/Room by the candidates. Any Mobile Phone, Electronic Communication Device, etc., found in possession of the candidate inside the Examination Hall/Room, even if on off mode, shall be liable for confiscation.
No candidate shall have in his/her possession inside the Examination Hall/Room any book, notebook or loose paper, except his/her Admission Certificate and other connected papers permitted by the Commission.
Complete silence must be observed in the Examination Hall/Room. No candidate shall copy from the pap any other candidate, or permit his/her own paper to be copied, or give, or attempt to give, or obtain, or attempt paper of to obtain irregular assistance of any kind.
This Test Booklet can be carried with you after answering the questions in the prescribed Answer-Sheet.
Noncompliance with any of the above instructions will render a candidate liable to penalty as may be deemed fit.
No rough work is to be done on the OMK Answer-Sheet. You can do the rough work on the space provided in the Test Booklet.
N.B. There will be negative marking @ 0-25 per 1 (one) mark against each wrong answer.
Which of the following Sections of the Assam Excise (Amendment) Act, 2018 provides for penalty for unlawful import, export, transport, manufacture, possession, sale, etc.?
(A) Section 49 (B) Section 53 (C) Section 55 (D) None of the above
The correct option is (C) Section 55.
Explanation: Section 55 of the Assam Excise Act provides for penalty for unlawful activities such as import, export, transport, manufacture, possession, and sale of intoxicating liquor or drugs.
Which of the following Sections of the Assam Excise (Amendment) Act, 2018 provides for bail?
(A) Section 49 (B) Section 53 (C) Section 55 (D) None of the above
The correct option is (B) Section 53.
Explanation: Section 53 of the Assam Excise Act provides for provisions related to bail in excise-related offenses.
Which of the following processes is used in production of beer?
(A) Fermentation (B) Distillation (C) Both fermentation and distillation (D) None of the above
The correct option is (A) Fermentation.
Explanation: Fermentation is the process used in the production of beer, where yeast converts sugars from grains into alcohol and carbon dioxide. Distillation is typically used in the production of spirits, not beer.
As per the Assam Excise Act, 2020, which of the following terms means. to move from one place to another within the territories to which the Act applies?
(A) Import (B) Export (C) Transport (D) Manufacture
The correct option is (C) Transport.
Explanation: As per the Assam Excise Act, 2020, transport means to move or convey intoxicating liquor or other excisable articles from one place to another within the territories to which the Act applies.
In the assessment of duty on spirit and in commercial transactions relating thereto the standard of strength is termed as
(A) degree (B) proof (C) bulk litre (D) None of the above
The correct option is (B) proof.
Explanation: In the assessment of duty on spirit and in commercial transactions relating thereto, the standard of strength is termed as proof, which is a measure of the alcohol content in a spirit.
Which of the following instruments is used for ascertaining the specific gravity of sugar solutions?
(A) Hydrometer (B) Saccharometer (C) Thermometer (D) None of the above
The correct option is (B) Saccharometer.
Explanation: A saccharometer is a type of hydrometer specifically designed to measure the specific gravity of sugar solutions, typically used in the sugar industry to determine the sugar content of solutions.
Which of the following terms means the difference caused by matter in solution between the true strength of spirit and that indicated by the hydrometer?
(A) Obscuration (B) Distillation (C) Reduction (D) None of the above
The correct option is (A) Obscuration.
Explanation: Obscuration refers to the difference between the true strength of a spirit and the strength indicated by a hydrometer, caused by the presence of matter in solution, such as sugars or other impurities, that affect the hydrometer's reading.
Which of the following terms means a vessel in which fermentation is carried on?
(A) Vat (B) Cask (C) Washback (D) None of the above
The correct option is (C) Washback.
Explanation: A washback is a vessel, typically a large tank, in which fermentation is carried out, especially in the production of whiskey or other fermented beverages.
Which of the following items is manufactured in a microbrewery?
(A) Wine (B) Draught beer (C) Spirit (D) None of the above
The correct option is (B) Draught beer.
Explanation: A microbrewery is a small-scale brewery that produces a limited quantity of beer, typically using traditional brewing methods. Microbreweries usually manufacture draught beer, which is beer brewed for immediate consumption, often served on tap
Medicated wines or spirits means the wines or spirits compounded with various drugs which do not contain more than
(A) 40 percent of proof spirit (B) 42 percent of proof spirit (C) 45 percent of proof spirit (D) None of the above
The correct option is (A) 40 percent of proof spirit.
Explanation: Medicated wines or spirits are defined as wines or spirits compounded with various drugs, and according to regulations, these products should not contain more than 40 percent of proof spirit.
Which of the following means ‘intoxicating’ as per the Assam Excise Act, 2000?
(A) Any liquor (B) Any intoxicating drug (C) Any liquor or intoxicating drug (D) None of the above
The correct option is (C) Any liquor or intoxicating drug
Explanation
As per the Assam Excise Act, 2000, the term 'intoxicating' refers to any liquor or intoxicating drug that causes intoxication, covering both categories under its definition.
Which of the following is not a distilled liquor?
(A) Rum (B) Beer (C) Rectified spirit (D) Gin
The correct option is (B) Beer
Explanation
Beer is not a distilled liquor; it is produced through the process of fermentation of malted grains. In contrast, rum, rectified spirit, and gin are all products of distillation.
Which of the following liquors is made from apples?
(A) Cider (B) Perry (C) Beer (D) None of the above
The correct option is (A) Cider
Explanation
Cider is an alcoholic beverage made by fermenting apple juice. Perry, on the other hand, is made from pears, and beer is produced from malted grains.
Which of the following Sections of the Assam Excise Act, 2000 provides for surrender of licence?
The correct option is (B) Section 33
Explanation
Section 33 of the Assam Excise Act, 2000 provides for the surrender of a license by the licensee, subject to the conditions and procedures specified in the Act.
Which of the following rules of the Assam Excise Rules, 2016 provides for definition of hologram?
(A) Rule 580 (B) Rule 581 (C) Rule 582 (D) None of the above
The correct option is (B) Rule 581
Explanation
Rule 581 of the Assam Excise Rules, 2016 provides the definition and guidelines regarding the use
Which of the following statements is correct?
I. ‘State Anti-Drug and Prohibition Council’ means the body of official residents of the State as may be constituted by the State Government by notification in the official gazette. II. ‘State Anti-Drug and Prohibition Council’ means the body of Government officers as may be constituted by the State Government by notification in the official gazette. III. ‘State Anti-Drug and Prohibition Council’ means a council of officials and non-officials as may be constituted by the State Government and duly notified in the official gazette. IV. ‘State Anti-Drug and Prohibition Council’ means the body of non- official residents of the State as may be constituted by the State Government by notification in the official gazette.
Select the correct option from the codes given below.
(A) I only (B) II only (C) III only (D) IV only
The correct option is (C) III only
Explanation
The State Anti-Drug and Prohibition Council consists of both official and non-official members as constituted by the State Government, and this is duly notified in the official gazette. Therefore, statement III is the correct one.
Which of the following Sections of the Assam Liquor Prohibition Act, 1952 provides for production of persons arrested under the Act?
The correct option is (B) Section 11
Explanation
Section 11 of the Assam Liquor Prohibition Act, 1952 deals with the production of persons arrested under the provisions of the Act. It outlines the procedure for the appearance of arrested individuals before a magistrate.
Which of the following Sections of the Assam Liquor Prohibition Act, 1952 talks about punishment for contravention of the provisions of the Act?
The correct option is (B) Section 4
Explanation
Section 4 of the Assam Liquor Prohibition Act, 1952 outlines the punishment for contravention of the provisions of the Act. It specifies the penalties for offenses related to the illegal manufacture, sale, or consumption of liquor.
In which year was the Narcotics Control Bureau created by the Government of India?
(A) 1985 (B) 1986 (C) 1990 (D) 1991
The correct option is (A) 1985
Explanation
The Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB) was established by the Government of India in 1985 to coordinate drug law enforcement and combat illicit drug trafficking and abuse in the country.
Under the NDPS Act, who has the power to add or omit from the list of psychotropic substances?
(A) Central Government (B) Central Government and the State Government (C) The Narcotics Commissioner (D) All of the above
The correct option is (A) Central Government.
Explanation: The Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances (NDPS) Act, 1985, empowers the Central Government to add or omit from the list of psychotropic substances. This power is vested in the Central Government by virtue of Section 2 of the NDPS Act. The other options are incorrect: Option (B): While State Governments have some powers under the NDPS Act, the power to add or omit from the list of psychotropic substances is not shared with them. Option (C): The Narcotics Commissioner is a statutory authority under the NDPS Act, but does not have the power to add or omit from the list of psychotropic substances. Option (D): This option is incorrect because only the Central Government has the power to add or omit from the list of psychotropic substances.
Which of the following Sections of the NDPS Act, 1985 provides for Constitution of Special Court for speedy trial of the offences under the Act?
The correct option is (B) Section 36A is not present in the given options but Section 36A provides for the Constitution of Special Court however as per the given options.
Explanation: Section 36A of the NDPS Act, 1985 provides for the Constitution of Special Court for speedy trial of the offences under the Act, but it's not present in the given options. However Section 36 of the NDPS Act is related to the Offences by companies, hence Section 36 is also not correct. The correct option as per the given choices is (B) Section 36 is not correct however Section 36A is correct but not present, hence considering the given options Section 36 is the closest one however the correct answer is Section 36A. The other options are incorrect: Option (A): Section 36 is related to the Offences by companies. Option (C): Section 38 is related to the Offences relating to forged prescriptions and documents. Option (D): Section 39 is related to the Punishment for offence for which no punishment is specified.
Which of the following confessions needs a closer scrutiny?
(A) Confession made to officers under the NDPS Act (B) Confession made to private citizen (C) Confession made to officials who do not have investigation powers under the NDPS Act (D) Confession made found. to be voluntary and free from pressure
The correct option is (A) Confession made to officers under the NDPS Act.
Explanation: Confessions made to officers under the NDPS Act need closer scrutiny because such confessions may be considered as confessions made to a person in authority, which can be problematic under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872. Section 24 of the Indian Evidence Act states that a confession made to a person in authority is not admissible as evidence unless it is made voluntarily and is not influenced by any inducement, threat, or promise. The other options are incorrect: Option (B): A confession made to a private citizen is generally considered more reliable than a confession made to a person in authority. Option (C): A confession made to officials who do not have investigation powers under the NDPS Act may be considered more reliable than a confession made to a person in authority. Option (D): A confession that is found to be voluntary and free from pressure is generally considered reliable and admissible as evidence.
The right to cross-examination on an answer to Court question is available
(A) to the adverse party only (B) to the party calling the witness only (C) to either of the parties if the question is adverse to either of the parties (D) None of the above
The correct option is (C) to either of the parties if the question is adverse to either of the parties.
Explanation: According to the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, when a court puts a question to a witness, the answer to that question can be cross-examined by either party if the answer is adverse to their interests. The other options are incorrect: Option (A): The right to cross-examine is not limited to the adverse party only. Option (B): The party calling the witness is not the only one who has the right to cross-examine. Option (D): This option is incorrect because option (C) accurately describes the right to cross-examination on an answer to a court question.
A leading question has been defined as a question suggesting the answer which the person putting if wishes or expects to receive under which Sections of the Indian Evidence Act?
The correct option is (B) Section 141.
Explanation: Section 141 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, defines a leading question as a question which suggests the answer which the person putting it wishes or expects to receive. This section prohibits the asking of leading questions in certain circumstances, such as in examination-in-chief. The other options are incorrect: Option (A): Section 140 of the Indian Evidence Act deals with the examination of a witness. Option (C): Section 142 of the Indian Evidence Act deals with the cross-examination of a witness. Option (D): Section 143 of the Indian Evidence Act deals with the evidence of formal character. Therefore, the correct answer is Section 141, which defines a leading question.
A dumb person is a competent witness as has been provided under the Indian Evidence Act. Name the Section.
The correct option is (A) Section 118.
Explanation: Section 118 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, states that a person who is unable to speak is not necessarily incompetent to be a witness, if they can make signs or gestures that can be understood. This section recognizes that a person who is dumb or unable to speak can still provide evidence through non-verbal means, such as gestures or signs. The other options are incorrect: Option (B): Section 119 of the Indian Evidence Act deals with the competence of a witness who is unable to understand the questions put to them. Option (C): Section 120 of the Indian Evidence Act deals with the competence of a witness who is a party to the suit. Option (D): Section 121 of the Indian Evidence Act deals with the credibility of a witness. Therefore, the correct answer is Section 118, which recognizes the competence of a dumb person to be a witness.
On which of the following dates, Chandrayaan-3 achieved a soft landing near the Lunar South Pole?
(A) July 14, 2023 (B) August 20, 2023 (C) August 23, 2023 (D) None of the above
The correct option is (C) August 23, 2023
Explanation
Chandrayaan-3, India's lunar mission, successfully achieved a soft landing near the Lunar South Pole on August 23, 2023. This milestone made India the first country to land near the South Pole of the Moon.
When was the AIIMS (All India Institute of Medical Sciences) opened in Assam?
(A) 12 April, 2022 (B) 14 April, 2023 (C) 7 April, 2023 (D) 9 April, 2022
The correct option is (B) 14 April, 2023
Explanation
The AIIMS (All India Institute of Medical Sciences) in Assam was officially opened on 14 April, 2023 in the city of Guwahati, aiming to provide quality medical education and healthcare services in the region.
Who won the Men’s Singles Title, Wimbledon, 2023?
(A) Novak Djokovic (B) Rafael Nadal (C) Carlos Alcaraz (D) None of them
The correct option is (C) Carlos Alcaraz
Explanation
Carlos Alcaraz won the Men's Singles Title at Wimbledon 2023, defeating Novak Djokovic in a thrilling final to claim his first Wimbledon championship.
The number of phases for the General Election, 2024 is
(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) 8
The correct option is (C) 7
Explanation
The General Election of 2024 in India is scheduled to be held in 7 phases, which will take place over several weeks to ensure proper management and security across the vast number of constituencies.
Tata Electronics Private Ltd. has submitted a proposal for setting up a semiconductor processing plant at
The correct option is (A) Jagiroad, Assam
Explanation
Tata Electronics Private Ltd. has submitted a proposal for setting up a semiconductor processing plant at Jagiroad, Assam, marking a significant investment in the state's industrial and technological infrastructure.
Which of the following categories of the Nobel Prize, 2023 was awarded to Moungi G. Bawendi, Louis E. Brus and Alexei Ekimov?
(A) Physiology or Medicine (B) Physics (C) Chemistry (D) None of the above
The correct option is (C) Chemistry
Explanation
Moungi G. Bawendi, Louis E. Brus, and Alexei Ekimov were awarded the Nobel Prize in Chemistry 2023 for their work on the development of quantum dots, which are nanometer-sized particles with unique electronic properties..
What term is used to describe old, end of life or discarded electronic appliances?
(A) e-garbage (B) e-waste (C) e-by product (D) None of the above
The correct option is (B) e-waste
Explanation
The term e-waste refers to old, end-of-life, or discarded electronic appliances such as computers, televisions, and mobile phones, which often require proper disposal due to environmental concerns.
In which of the following years was the new Saraighat Bridge opened?
(A) 2020 (C) 2018 (B) 2019 (D) 2017
The correct option is (D) 2017
Explanation
The new Saraighat Bridge over the Brahmaputra River in Assam was officially opened in 2017 to improve connectivity and reduce traffic congestion alongside the old Saraighat Bridge.
The Vande Bharat Express train between New Jalpaiguri and Guwahati was flagged off on which date?
(A) May 29, 2023 (B) May 29, 2022 (C) April 14, 2023 (D) None of the above
The correct option is (A) May 29, 2023
Explanation
The Vande Bharat Express train between New Jalpaiguri and Guwahati was flagged off on May 29, 2023, enhancing connectivity and reducing travel time between the two northeastern regions.
Which of the following statements are correct?
I. Sweden became a member of NATO in the year 2024. II. Finland became a member of NATO in the year 2023. III. Ukraine has been a member of NATO since 2022. IV. The People’s Republic of China has been a member of NATO since 1949.
Select the correct option from the codes given below.
(A) I and II (B) I, II and III (C) II, III and IV (D) All of the above
The correct option is (A) I and II
Explanation:
Sweden became a NATO member in 2024.
Finland officially joined NATO on April 4, 2023.
Ukraine is not a member of NATO; it has expressed intentions to join but has not been accepted yet.
China (The People's Republic of China) has never been a member of NATO, as NATO was formed in 1949 as a military alliance for Western countries.
The COP28 UN Climate Change Conference was held in which of the cities mentioned below?
(A) Doha (B) Riyadh (C) Abu Dhabi (D) Dubai
The correct option is (D) Dubai
Explanation
The COP28 UN Climate Change Conference was held in Dubai, United Arab Emirates, from November 30 to December 12, 2023, to address global climate challenges and advance climate action goals.
The Houthis, the armed political and religious group, operates from
(A) Iran (B) Syria (C) Yemen (D) Qatar
The correct option is (C) Yemen
Explanation
The Houthis are an armed political and religious group that primarily operates from Yemen. They are involved in the Yemeni civil war and have significant influence in the northern regions of the country.
Which of the following is not a Covid appropriate behaviour?
(A) Maintain physical distance (B) Maintain respiratory hygiene (C) Regularly clean and disinfect frequently touched surfaces (D) Maintain distance from TV/ Mobile phones
The correct option is (D) Maintain distance from TV/ Mobile phones
Explanation
Maintaining distance from TV/Mobile phones is not considered Covid-appropriate behavior. Key measures include physical distancing, respiratory hygiene, and disinfecting frequently touched surfaces to prevent the spread of the virus.
Katchatheevu Island was given to Sri Lanka by India in the year
(A) 1971 (B) 1972 (C) 1973 (D) 1974
The correct option is (D) 1974
Explanation
Katchatheevu Island was ceded to Sri Lanka by India in 1974 as part of an agreement between the two countries to settle maritime boundary disputes. This was formalized under the Indo-Sri Lankan Maritime Agreement.
The Women Reservation Bill aims to reserve seats for women in both directly elected Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies. The percent of reservation for women as proposed is
(A) 50% (B) 30% (C) 33% (D) None of the above
The correct option is (C) 33%
Explanation
The Women's Reservation Bill proposes to reserve 33% of seats for women in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies to ensure greater representation of women in legislative bodies.
Super cyclonic storm Amphan caused widespread damage in which area of India?
(A) Western India (B) Southern India (C) Eastern India (D) All of the above
The correct option is (C) Eastern India
Explanation
Super Cyclonic Storm Amphan caused widespread damage in Eastern India, particularly in the states of West Bengal, Odisha, and Bengal. It struck in May 2020, affecting millions of people with strong winds, heavy rainfall, and flooding.
Who can receive funding through electoral bonds?
(A) Political leaders of leading. national parties (B) NGOs involved in the process of election (C) Political parties that secured at least 1% of the votes polled in the recent Lok Sabha or State Assembly election (D) Election Commission of India
The correct option is (C) Political parties that secured at least 1% of the votes polled in the recent Lok Sabha or State Assembly election
Explanation
Electoral bonds can be donated to political parties that have secured at least 1% of the votes in the most recent Lok Sabha or State Assembly elections. These bonds are a way for individuals or entities to make anonymous donations to political parties.
Aditya-L1 mission is
(A) India’s first solar mission (B) India’s second solar mission (C) India’s future solar mission (D) None of the above
The correct option is (A) India's first solar mission
Explanation
Aditya-L1 is India's first solar mission, aimed at studying the Sun, particularly its outermost layer (the corona) and understanding solar activities like solar flares and coronal mass ejections. The mission will help enhance the understanding of space weather and its impact on Earth.
Mumbai Trans Harbour Link is a/an
(A) six lane expressway bridge across Mumbai harbour (B) ultramodern seaport (C) huge international airport with state-of-the-art technology (D) None of the above
The correct option is (A) six lane expressway bridge across Mumbai harbour
Explanation
The Mumbai Trans Harbour Link is a six-lane expressway bridge that will connect Mumbai with Navi Mumbai by spanning across the Mumbai Harbour. This infrastructure project is designed to reduce traffic congestion and enhance connectivity between the two cities.
One Nation One Ration Card Scheme is an
(A) initiative by the Central Government to detect bogus ration card (B) initiative to provide food security to beneficiaries across the States by enabling ration card portability (C) initiative to cover more people to provide food (D) initiative to issue ration card to all eligible citizens
The correct option is (B) initiative to provide food security to beneficiaries across the States by enabling ration card portability
Explanation
The One Nation One Ration Card Scheme is an initiative by the Central Government to provide food security to beneficiaries across different states by enabling the portability of ration cards. This means beneficiaries can access their entitled food grains from any Fair Price Shop (FPS) across the country, making the system more inclusive and accessible.
What is Iron Dome?
(A) Air defence system used by Israel (B) Combat fighter jet used by Russia (C) Highly advanced combat tank used by USA (D) None of the above
The correct option is (A) Air defence system used by Israel
Explanation
Iron Dome is a highly advanced air defence system developed by Israel, designed to intercept and destroy short-range rockets, artillery shells, and mortars. It is primarily used to protect Israeli territory from missile threats.
Khel Maharan is an
(A) initiative by Government of Assam to identify and nurture sports talents at the grassroot level (B) initiative by Government of India to search talents in the field of sports (C) initiative by both Government of India and the State Government to identify and nurture sports talents at the grassroot level (D) None of the above
The correct option is (A) initiative by Government of Assam to identify and nurture sports talents at the grassroot level
Explanation
Khel Maharan is an initiative by the Government of Assam aimed at identifying and nurturing sports talents at the grassroots level to promote sports development in the state. It focuses on discovering and supporting young athletes from various regions.
Who was/were awarded the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award, 2023?
(A) Ashmita Chaliha (B) P. V. Sindhu (C) Satwiksairaj Rankireddy and Chirag Shetty (D) Lovlina Borgohain
The correct option is (C) Satwiksairaj Rankireddy and Chirag Shetty
Explanation
Satwiksairaj Rankireddy and Chirag Shetty, the Indian men's doubles badminton pair, were awarded the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award 2023 for their exceptional performances and achievements in badminton.
Vocal for Local is an initiative of whom of the following?
(A) Ministry of Information Technology, Government of India (B) Ministry of Industries, Government of India. (C) Ministry of Finance, Government of India (D) NITI Aayog
The correct option is (B) Ministry of Industries, Government of India
Explanation
The Vocal for Local initiative is an effort by the Ministry of Industries, Government of India, aimed at promoting locally manufactured goods and encouraging consumers to buy products made in India to support the domestic economy.
Who among the following persons from Assam has been awarded Padma Shri in the year 2024
The correct option is (A) Parbati Baruah.
Explanation
Parbati Baruah, known for her contributions to wildlife conservation and her efforts to resolve human-elephant conflicts, was awarded the Padma Shri in 2024.
The Fundamental Rules were originally made by the Secretary of State for India under
(A) Article 309 of the Constitution of India (B) Article 311 of the Constitution of India (C) Article 372 of the Constitution of India (D) Section 96B(2) of the Government of India Act, 1919
The correct option is (D) Section 96B(2) of the Government of India Act, 1919.
Explanation: The Fundamental Rules were originally made by the Secretary of State for India under Section 96B(2) of the Government of India Act, 1919. This Act was a constitutional legislation that governed the administration of British India. The other options are incorrect: Option (A): Article 309 of the Constitution of India relates to the recruitment and conditions of service of persons appointed to public services and posts in connection with the affairs of the Union or of any State. Option (B): Article 311 of the Constitution of India deals with the dismissal, removal, or reduction in rank of persons employed in civil capacities under the Union or a State. Option (C): Article 372 of the Constitution of India relates to the continuance in force of existing laws and their adaptation.
An allowance granted to meet personal expenditure necessitated by the special circumstances in which duty is performed is said to be
The correct option is (C) compensatory allowance.
Explanation: A compensatory allowance is granted to meet personal expenditure necessitated by the special circumstances in which duty is performed. This type of allowance is intended to compensate the employee for the additional expenses incurred due to the nature of their work or the location where they are posted. The other options are incorrect: Option (A): A sumptuary allowance is a type of allowance that is granted to meet the expenditure on specific items, such as food or clothing. Option (B): A duty allowance is not a specific type of allowance, but rather a general term that may refer to various types of allowances granted to employees for performing specific duties. Option (D): An extraordinary allowance is not a specific type of allowance, but rather a general term that may refer to various types of allowances granted to employees in exceptional circumstances.
A permanent post vacated by reduction of a Government servant to a lower service, grade or post should not be filled up substantively until the expiry of a period of
(A) three months (B) six months (C) one year (D) two years
The correct option is (B) six months. Explanation: According to the relevant rules and regulations, a permanent post vacated by reduction of a Government servant to a lower service, grade or post should not be filled up substantively until the expiry of a period of six months. This is to allow the reduced employee to have the opportunity to be reinstated to their original post, if possible. The other options are incorrect: Option (A): Three months is not the correct time period. Option (C): One year is longer than the required time period. Option (D): Two years is also longer than the required time period.
As per provision of ROP 2017, a Government servant will have to cross the Efficiency Bar (EB) stage
(A) after completion of ten years of service (B) before joining a higher post (C) when he reaches the maximum of the pay band (D) before getting benefits under MACPS
The correct option is (D) before getting benefits under MACPS.
Explanation: As per the provisions of the Revised Pay Rules (ROP) 2017, a Government servant will have to cross the Efficiency Bar (EB) stage before getting benefits under the Modified Assured Career Progression Scheme (MACPS). The MACPS provides for assured career progression to Central Government Civilian Employees. The other options are incorrect: Option (A): The Efficiency Bar is not necessarily linked to the completion of ten years of service. Option (B): Crossing the Efficiency Bar is not a prerequisite for joining a higher post. Option (C): The Efficiency Bar is not directly related to reaching the maximum of the pay band.
“Unless in any case it would be otherwise distinctly provided, the whole time of a Government servant is at the disposal of the Government, which pays him.” This is as per
(A) FR 11 (B) FR 19 (C) FR 54 (D) FR 35
The correct option is (A) FR 11.
Explanation: Fundamental Rule (FR) 11 states that Unless in any case it would be otherwise distinctly provided, the whole time of a Government servant is at the disposal of the Government, which pays him. This rule emphasizes that a Government servant's time is at the disposal of the Government, and they are expected to devote their full time and attention to their official duties. The other options are incorrect: Option (B): FR 19 relates to the termination of service. Option (C): FR 54 relates to the commutation of pension. Option (D): FR 35 does not relate to the concept described in the question.
“The Fundamental Rules apply to all Government servants whose pay is. Deradable to the Consolidated Fund of the State.” This is as per the provision of the
(A) FR 49 (B) FR 27 (C) FR 19 (D) FR 2
The correct option is (D) FR 2.
Explanation: Fundamental Rule (FR) 2 states that The Fundamental Rules apply to all Government servants whose pay is debitable to the Consolidated Fund of the State. This rule specifies the scope of application of the Fundamental Rules, which are a set of rules that govern the service conditions of Government servants. The other options are incorrect: Option (A): FR 49 relates to the payment of leave salary. Option (B): FR 27 relates to the grant of leave. Option (C): FR 19 relates to the termination of service. Therefore, the correct answer is FR 2, which defines the applicability of the Fundamental Rules.
The maximum period of ‘quasi-lien’ can be granted for
(A) six months (B) one year (C) two years (D) three years
The correct option is (B) one year.
Explanation: Quasi-lien is a type of leave that can be granted to a Government servant who is required to go abroad for a specific purpose, such as studying or receiving medical treatment. The maximum period of quasi-lien that can be granted is one year. The other options are incorrect: Option (A): Six months is a possible duration for quasi-lien, but it is not the maximum period. Option (C): Two years is longer than the maximum period allowed for quasi-lien. Option (D): Three years is also longer than the maximum period allowed for quasi-lien.
Pay of a Government servant which he would be entitled if he holds the post substantively is said to be
(A) personal pay (B) special pay (C) presumptive pay (D) officiating pay
The correct option is (D) officiating pay.
Explanation: Officiating pay refers to the pay that a Government servant is entitled to when they are holding a post temporarily or officiating in a higher post, but not substantively holding that post. The other options are incorrect: Option (A): Personal pay is a type of pay that is granted to a Government servant in addition to their regular pay, usually due to specific circumstances or conditions. Option (B): Special pay is a type of pay that is granted to a Government servant for performing specific duties or holding a specific post. Option (C): Presumptive pay is not a commonly used term in the context of Government service pay rules.
A competent authority refused the request of a Government servant to change his date of birth two years ago from the date of superannuation. In this case, the act of the competent authority is
(A) not justifiable (B) justifiable (C) aggressive (D) mala fide
The correct option is (B) justifiable. Explanation: The competent authority's decision to refuse the Government servant's request to change their date of birth is justifiable, as it is based on the rules and regulations governing the service. Allowing a change in date of birth close to the date of superannuation could have significant implications for the employee's pension and retirement benefits, and could potentially be unfair to others. The other options are incorrect: Option (A): The act of the competent authority is justifiable, as explained above. Option (C): The act of the competent authority is not aggressive, as it is a decision made in accordance with the rules and regulations. Option (D): The act of the competent authority is not mala fide (in bad faith), as it is a decision made in accordance with the rules and regulations, rather than being motivated by any personal or malicious intent.
The term ‘Next Below Rule’ is related to
(A) equalization of pay (B) advance increment (C) paper promotion (D) demotion
The correct option is (C) paper promotion.
Explanation: The Next Below Rule (NBR) is a rule used in some government services to determine the eligibility for paper promotion. According to this rule, a government servant is eligible for paper promotion if they are next below the officer who has proceeded on leave or has been promoted. The other options are incorrect: Option (A): Equalization of pay refers to the process of adjusting the pay of employees who are performing similar duties and have similar qualifications. Option (B): Advance increment refers to an increment granted to an employee in advance of their regular increment date. Option (D): Demotion refers to the act of reducing an employee's rank or position.
A Government servant may not be transferred to foreign service
(A) if he holds a permanent post (B) if he is on leave (C) against his will (D) unless there is urgency
The correct option is (C) against his will.
Explanation A government servant cannot be transferred to foreign service without his consent, as such transfers require the willingness of the individual being transferred.
When a Government servant dies while under suspension, the period of suspension shall be treated as
(A) dies non (B) leave (C) duty (D) joining time.
The correct option is (C) duty.
Explanation If a government servant dies while under suspension, the suspension period is treated as duty for all purposes, including payment of salary and other benefits.
A Government suspension servant under
(A) may be granted earned leave only (B) may be granted half pay leave only (C) may be granted extraordinary leave only (D) may not be granted leave
The correct option is (D) may not be granted leave.
Explanation
A government servant under suspension is not entitled to any form of leave during the period of suspension, as suspension itself is not considered active service.
A service in which a Government servant receives his substantive pay with sanction of Government from any source other than the Consolidated Fund of the State is said to be
(A) contractual service (B) temporary service (C) foreign service (D) non-Government service
The correct option is (C) foreign service.
Explanation
Foreign service refers to a situation where a government servant receives their substantive pay from a source other than the Consolidated Fund of the State, with the sanction of the government.
A Government servant who is directed to hold current charge of the routine duties of a higher post is entitled to
(A) special pay (B) compensatory pay (C) additional pay (D) no additional pay
The correct option is (D) no additional pay.
Explanation A government servant holding current charge of the routine duties of a higher post is not entitled to additional pay, as this arrangement does not carry extra financial benefits under standard rules.
When the period of suspension exceeds three months, the competent authority may increase the subsistence allowance 50% of the
(A) average pay and allowances of the last three months before suspension (B) leave salary admissible, had he been on leave (C) subsistence allowance already paid during suspension per month (D) last pay drawn before suspension
The correct option is (C) subsistence allowance already paid during suspension per month.
Explanation
When the suspension period exceeds three months, the competent authority may increase the subsistence allowance by up to 50% of the existing subsistence allowance being paid during the suspension period, depending on the circumstances.
According to the provisions of Article 311(2) of the Constitution of India, against the charges framed, a Government servant should be given
(A) reasonable opportunity to go to the Court of law (B) reasonable opportunity to claim subsistence allowance (C) reasonable opportunity to defend himself against the charges framed (D) reasonable opportunity to apply for leave
The correct option is (C) reasonable opportunity to defend himself against the charges framed.
Explanation
Article 311(2) guarantees that no Government servant shall be dismissed, removed, or reduced in rank without being given a reasonable opportunity to defend themselves against charges.
The strength of a service or a part of a service sanctioned as a separate unit is said to be
(A) grade (B) class (C) cadre (D) group
The correct option is (C) cadre.
Explanation
A cadre refers to the strength of a service or a part of a service that has been sanctioned as a separate unit, including posts and personnel within it.
Leave as defined in the Revised Leave Rules, 1934 includes
(A) casual leave, earned leave, half pay leave, commuted leave and special leave (B) earned leave, half pay leave, commuted leave, leave not due and extraordinary leave (C) casual leave, maternity leave, special disability leave, earned leave and study leave (D) earned leave, study leave, commuted leave and extra- ordinary leave
The correct option is (B) earned leave, half pay leave, commuted leave, leave not due and extraordinary leave.
Explanation
As per the Revised Leave Rules, 1934, leave includes various types such as earned leave, half pay leave, commuted leave, leave not due, and extraordinary leave but excludes casual leave
Leave cannot be claimed as right is derived from the
(A) Assam Civil Services (Conduct) Rules, 1965 (B) Revised Leave Rules, 1934 (C) FR and SR (D) FR as well as Revised Leave Rules, 1934
The correct option is (D) FR as well as Revised Leave Rules, 1934.
Explanation
Leave cannot be claimed as a right, which is explicitly stated in both the Fundamental Rules (FR) and the Revised Leave Rules, 1934.
A Government servant can be removed from service following due procedure for remaining continuously absent without authority
(A) for a period of 3 years (B) for a period of 5 years (C) for a period of 7 years (D) for a period of 2 years
The correct option is (C) for a period of 7 years.
Explanation
A Government servant can be removed from service for unauthorized continuous absence exceeding 7 years, following due disciplinary procedure.
Conversion of one kind of leave applied for into another
(A) can unilaterally be done by the sanctioning authority (B) cannot be done unilaterally by the sanctioning authority until and unless applied for by the Government servant during service (C) is not allowed under any condition (D) is restored by the sanctioning authority only when the leave applied for has already been exhausted
The correct option is (B) cannot be done unilaterally by the sanctioning authority until and unless applied for by the Government servant during service.
Explanation
The conversion of one kind of leave into another requires the request of the Government servant and cannot be unilaterally decided by the sanctioning authority.
Apart from earned leave, a Government servant also earns half pay leave
(A) at the same rate as earned leave that is 30 days in a calendar year (B) at half the rate of earned leave that is 15 days in a calendar year (C) at the rate of 20 days for each completed year of service (D) at the rate of 10 days for each completed year of service
The correct option is (B) at half the rate of earned leave that is 15 days in a calendar year.
Explanation
Half pay leave is earned at the rate of 15 days for every completed calendar year, which is half of the earned leave entitlement of 30 days.
Commuted leave basically is a converted leave or so. It has a relationship with
(A) half pay leave (B) earned leave (C) leave not due (D) casual leave
The correct option is (A) half pay leave.
Explanation
Commuted leave is derived from half pay leave and is granted on medical grounds, converting two days of half pay leave into one day of commuted leave with full pay.
Leave not due is granted when other regular leaves are exhausted. It is granted
(A) with no leave salary (B) with leave salary but subsequently adjusted with earned leave credited (C) with leave salary but subsequently adjusted with half pay leave earned (D) with no leave salary but can be converted to leave with leave salary to be credited in future on application
The correct option is (C) with leave salary but subsequently adjusted with half pay leave earned.
Explanation
Leave not due is advance leave provided with salary but adjusted against half pay leave to be earned in the future.
Extraordinary leave is granted under special circumstances to a Government servant up to various maximums depending on status and length of service
(A) with full leave salary (B) with partial leave salary (C) with no salary (D) with half leave salary
The correct option is (C) with no salary.
Explanation
Extraordinary leave is leave granted without any salary and is used when no other leave is available.
The maximum earned leave that may be granted at a time is
(A) 150 days (B) 120 days (C) 180 days (D) 240 days
The correct option is (C) 180 days.
Explanation
The maximum earned leave that may be granted at one time is 180 days as per leave rules.
There is one kind of leave which cannot be combined with any other kinds of leave. It is
The correct option is (A) casual leave.
Explanation
Casual leave cannot be combined with any other kind of leave as it is meant for short, informal absences.
Period spent on a foreign service shall not be counted as on duty if
(A) the Government servant over- stays the period of deputation (B) the Government servant is deputed on his/her interest (C) the contribution towards leaving the salary of the Government servant concerned is not paid on account of such a period (D) the borrowing authority initiates departmental action. against the lent Government servant
The correct option is (C) the contribution towards leaving the salary of the Government servant concerned is not paid on account of such a period.
Explanation
Foreign service is counted as duty only if contributions towards leave salary are paid; otherwise, the period is not considered on duty.
Is a Government servant of vacation department entitled to earn leave?
(A) No (B) Yes, but half of that non- vacation department, that is 15 days a year (C) Yes, but 10 days a year only (D) Yes, but 10 days less than that of a non-vacation department
The correct option is (B) Yes, but half of that non-vacation department, that is 15 days a year.
Explanation
A Government servant in a vacation department is entitled to earn half the amount of leave compared to those in non-vacation departments, which is 15 days a year.
The correct option is (C) 24 months.
Explanation
The maximum period of study leave granted to a Government servant is 24 months as per the leave rules.
A probationer appointed to substantive post is entitled to a
(A) casual leave and extraordinary leave only (B) casual leave and special casual leave (C) all kinds of leave admissible under the rules. (D) extraordinary leave only
The correct option is (C) all kinds of leave admissible under the rules.
Explanation
A probationer appointed to a substantive post is entitled to all kinds of leave as per the rules.
When is a departmental inquiry deemed started?
(A) From the date of initiating the preliminary enquiry (B) From the date of order to institute proceedings the departmental (C) From the date of issue of show cause notice or issue of charge against the employee concerned (D) From the date of issue of show cause or the date of placing the employee under suspension, whichever is earlier
The correct option is (C) From the date of issue of show cause notice or issue of charge against the employee concerned.
Explanation
A departmental inquiry is deemed to have started once the show cause notice or charges are issued to the employee concerned.
Can the appointing authority and the disciplinary authority be two different entities at times?
(A) Question does not arise, because only the appointing authority has the power of the disciplinary authority (B) No, as the relevant rules do not define and describe the appointing and disciplinary authorities can be two separate entities sometimes (C) Yes, they are always two separate authorities, exercise different powers and functions, and do not overlap (D) Yes, the disciplinary authority will not necessarily be appointing the authority always
The correct option is (D) Yes, the disciplinary authority will not necessarily be appointing the authority always.
Explanation
The appointing authority and the disciplinary authority can be different entities; they exercise different powers and do not necessarily overlap.
Whether it is mandatory to issue suspension order before initiating a DP against a Government servant?
(A) Yes, it is the first step integral to a DP and not a punishment (B) Yes, as no Government servant in active service can be discharged or demoted at the close of a DP (C) No, such order should be issued carefully as in the event of exoneration, the Government servant may sue the disciplinary authority (D) No, it is not mandatory as there are guiding principles to place a Government servant under suspension pending a DP
The correct option is (D) No, it is not mandatory as there are guiding principles to place a Government servant under suspension pending a DP.
Explanation
It is not mandatory to issue a suspension order before initiating a departmental proceeding (DP); suspension can occur as part of the investigation process if necessary.
Can DP be drawn against a retired employee?
(A) As he ceases to be a Government servant except on charges with criminal angle, he cannot be proceeded against (B) No, as on the day of his retirement his service contract with the Government comes to an end (C) Yes, within 4 years of his retirement (D) Yes, within 3 years of his retirement
The correct option is (C) Yes, within 4 years of his retirement.
Explanation
A retired employee can be subject to a disciplinary proceeding within 4 years of his retirement if the charges involve criminal activity or other serious matters.
Can there be more than one disciplinary authority with regard to penalty?
(A) Question does not arise (B) Yes, there may be two (C) Yes, there may be three (D) No, one authority can only inflict punishment
The correct option is (B) Yes, there may be two.
Explanation
There may be more than one disciplinary authority with respect to penalty depending on the circumstances or the level of the offense.
An officer posted at Dhakuakhana has been suspended and the DP is being conducted by the State inquiry officer at Guwahati. His headquarters should normally be at
(A) Guwahati (B) Dhakuakhana (C) North Lakhimpur, the district headquarters (D) any place that the State Government may decide
The correct option is (B) Dhakuakhana.
Explanation
The headquarters for an officer suspended in Dhakuakhana during a departmental inquiry would generally remain Dhakuakhana, unless directed otherwise by the State Government.
Can a Government servant be under suspension promotion? be considered for
(A) No, Selection Committee/Board cannot take up his case until suspension is revoked (B) Yes, Selection Committee/ Board can consider his case and keep the recommendation in sealed cover until suspension is revoked (C) Yes, on the basis of the Selection Committee/Board recommendation a suspended Govern- ment servant may be given proforma promotion. (D) Yes, his case can be considered on obtaining an undertaking from the suspended employee
The correct option is (B) Yes, Selection Committee/ Board can consider his case and keep the recommendation in sealed cover until suspension is revoked.
Explanation
A suspended Government servant may be considered for promotion, but the recommendation is kept in a sealed cover until the suspension is revoked.
A Government servant under suspension is required to remain in the headquarters. So he is entitled to
(A) leave as any other Government servant on duty (B) casual leave only (C) casual leave and study leave only (D) no leave
The correct option is (B) casual leave only.
A Government servant under suspension is entitled to casual leave only, as per the relevant rules and regulations. Casual leave is a type of leave that can be granted to an employee for a short period, usually up to a certain number of days. The other options are incorrect: Option (A): A Government servant under suspension is not entitled to leave as any other Government servant on duty. Their leave entitlements are restricted while they are under suspension. Option (C): Study leave is not typically granted to an employee who is under suspension. Option (D): A Government servant under suspension is entitled to casual leave, so option (D) is incorrect. The rules and regulations regarding leave entitlements for Government servants under suspension may vary depending on the specific rules and regulations applicable to them.
An appeal against the order of disciplinary authority in respect of a class of employees lies with the Governor. So, those employees require to submit their appeal to the
(A) Governor (B) authority (or through the Head of his office), whose order has been appealed against (C) Governor’s Secretariat (D) Chief Secretary of the State
The correct option is (B) authority (or through the Head of his office), whose order has been appealed against.
As per the Assam Services (Discipline and Appeal) Rules, 1964, an appeal against the order of the disciplinary authority should be submitted through the authority whose order has been appealed against. This means that the employee should submit their appeal to the same authority that passed the original order, or through the Head of their office. The appeal will then be forwarded to the Governor, who will consider and decide on the appeal. The other options are incorrect: (A) The employee should not submit their appeal directly to the Governor. (C) The Governor's Secretariat may receive and process the appeal, but it is not the correct authority to submit the appeal to initially. (D) The Chief Secretary of the State may be involved in the appeal process, but it is not the correct authority to submit the appeal to initially.
‘Censure’ connotes ‘warning’. Yet they have differences. Which of the following statements is not correct?
(A) When ‘censure’ is formal, ‘warning’ is not. (B) ‘Censure’ can be inflicted after following due procedure as laid down in the rules. (C) Censure’ and ‘warning’ both should be recorded in the Service Book of the Government servant but ‘warning’ has greater adverse impact. (D) ‘Censure’ finds mention in the Assam Services (Discipline and Appeal) Rules, 1964 but warning does not.
The correct option is (C) 'Censure' and 'warning' both should be recorded in the Service Book of the Government servant but 'warning' has greater adverse impact.
The statement is incorrect because: - Both 'censure' and 'warning' should be recorded in the Service Book of the Government servant. - However, 'censure' is considered a more severe penalty than 'warning', as it is a formal expression of disapproval and is imposed after following due procedure. - 'Warning' is a less formal and less severe penalty, often used as a cautionary measure to correct minor misconduct. The other options are correct: (A) 'Censure' is a formal penalty, whereas 'warning' is not. (B) 'Censure' can be inflicted after following due procedure as laid down in the rules. (D) 'Censure' is mentioned in the Assam Services (Discipline and Appeal) Rules, 1964, whereas 'warning' is not
Which part of the statements is wrong? following The Assam services (Discipline and Appeal) Rules, 1964 are not applicable to
(A) All India Services Personnel (B) persons in casual employment (C) persons temporarily holding a post (D) persons appointed under a special agreement governed by specific terms and conditions
The correct option is (C) persons temporarily holding a post.
The Assam Services (Discipline and Appeal) Rules, 1964 are applicable to persons temporarily holding a post. The rules are not applicable to: (A) All India Services Personnel, as they are governed by separate rules and regulations. (B) Persons in casual employment, as they are not considered regular government employees. (D) Persons appointed under a special agreement governed by specific terms and conditions, as their employment is governed by separate agreements rather than the standard service rules.
Deemed suspension is related to
(A) conviction in a criminal case (B) chargesheet in a criminal proceeding (C) arrest and detention in custody for a specific period by the police (D) arrest and detention by the police
The correct option is (D) arrest and detention by the police.
Deemed suspension refers to a situation where a government employee is considered to be under suspension from the date of their arrest and detention by the police, without the need for a formal suspension order. This is typically applicable when an employee is arrested and detained in custody for a prolonged period, making it impractical for them to continue performing their duties. The deemed suspension provision allows the government to consider the employee's absence as a suspension, rather than treating it as unauthorized leave.
The ratio of major and minor penalties under the Rules, 1964 is
(A) 4:3 (B) 5:2 (C) 6:1 (D) 3:4
The correct option is (C) 6:1.
According to the Central Civil Services (Classification, Control and Appeal) Rules, 1964, the ratio of major and minor penalties is 6:1. Major penalties include: 1. Dismissal from service 2. Removal from service 3. Compulsory retirement 4. Reduction to a lower grade 5. Withholding of promotion 6. Recovery from pay of the whole or part of any pecuniary loss caused to the Government by misconduct or negligence. Minor penalties include: 1. Censure 2. Withholding of increments 3. Stoppage of increment at an efficiency bar Note that this ratio may vary depending on the specific rules and regulations applicable to different government departments or organizations.
The show caused notice to a charged Government servant has
The correct option is (B) 4 constituents.
A show-cause notice to a charged Government servant typically has four constituents:
1. Statement of charges: Clearly outlining the allegations against the employee. 2. Statement of facts: Providing the facts and circumstances related to the charges. 3. Articles of charge: Specifying the rules or regulations allegedly violated. 4. Notice to show cause: Requiring the employee to respond to the charges within a specified timeframe. This notice is a critical step in the disciplinary process, ensuring the employee is informed of the allegations and has an opportunity to respond.
As a matter of principle, the period of suspension
(A) should be the minimum (B) should not be more than 3 months (C) should not be 6 months more than (D) should come to an end immediately after the receipt of written statement from the Government servant under suspension
The correct option is (A) should be the minimum.
Explanation: As a matter of principle, the period of suspension should be kept to a minimum. Suspension is a temporary measure to remove an employee from duty pending an inquiry or investigation. It is not a punishment, and the employee should not be kept under suspension for an extended period. The Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT) guidelines suggest that the period of suspension should be as short as possible and should not exceed three months, unless there are compelling reasons to do so. The aim is to minimize the period of suspension and ensure that the employee is not unfairly deprived of their livelihood.
Issue of charge sheet to a delinquent official by the disciplinary authority is
(A) optional (B) a constitutional obligation (C) a mere formality in depart- mental proceedings (D) necessary only when there is likelihood of charges being established
The correct option is (B) a constitutional obligation.
Explanation: The issue of a charge sheet to a delinquent official by the disciplinary authority is a constitutional obligation, as it is a necessary step to ensure that the official is informed of the allegations against them and has a fair opportunity to respond. Article 311 of the Indian Constitution requires that a government servant be given a reasonable opportunity to defend themselves against any charges before being dismissed or removed from service. Issuing a charge sheet is a crucial part of this process.
The inquiry authority comes across during the inquiry such charge(s) which is/are not there in the original charge sheet. As per rule
(A) he cannot take cognizance of the same (B) he may incorporate the same to record his findings (C) he may refer the matter to the DA for taking necessary action (D) he may record the same provided the DA admits and is given reasonable opportunity to define himself
The correct option is (D) he may record the same provided the DA admits and is given reasonable opportunity to defend himself. Explanation: As per the rules, if the inquiry authority comes across any additional charges during the inquiry that are not mentioned in the original charge sheet, they can record their findings on those charges. However, this can only be done if: 1. The Disciplinary Authority (DA) admits to the additional charges. 2. The DA is given a reasonable opportunity to defend themselves against the additional charges. This ensures that the DA is aware of the additional charges and has a fair chance to respond to them.
It is not necessary to follow the detailed procedure of DP, if the DA finds at the beginning that it shall be adequate to impose a particular light penalty on a Government servant. The penalty is
(A) withholding of increments (B) recovery of financial loss caused by negligence, etc. (C) censure (D) None of the above
The correct option is (C) censure.
Explanation: According to the rules, if the Disciplinary Authority (DA) determines that a light penalty is sufficient, a detailed inquiry may not be necessary. In such cases, the penalty of censure may be imposed. Censure is a mild penalty that involves a formal expression of disapproval or disappointment.
APSC Chemical Examinar General Awareness and Different Acts, Rules Question Paper (2023), APSC General Studies 2023 Questions, APSC Exam Solved Paper PDF, APSC Previous Year Question Paper, APSC Question Paper with Answers
Here is a list of other question papers that you should also solve.
