APSC CCE Prelims GS 2022 Question Paper With Answers

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APSC CCE Prelims General Studies 2022 Question Paper With Solutions

Go through the question paper of APSC CCEP with solutions. Solving previous years’ question papers will help you get a very good idea of how the questions are asked in the General Studies paper. We have hidden the answers so that you can solve it yourself first before reading the actual answer. Good luck.

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

Test Booklet No.:62728

TEST BOOKLET

GENERAL STUDIES

Paper-I

Time Allowed: 2 Hours Full Marks : 200

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(B) London
(C) Dhaka
(D) Dhubri

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1.Consider the following statements about tea in Assam

(i) The Singphos were already. familiar with tea before it became more widely known.
(ii) Bruce Brothers are considered to be the pioneers of Assam tea,
(iii) Assam Company was founded in 1835

The correct option is: (i) and (ii) are correct. Explanation: The Singphos, an indigenous group in Assam, were familiar with tea before it gained wider popularity. The Bruce brothers, particularly Robert Bruce and Charles Bruce, played a pioneering role in the discovery and cultivation of tea in Assam. However, the Assam Company was founded in 1839, not 1835.

2. Consider the following statements about Vedic literature:

(i) Vedic literature is broadly divided into two parts Shruti and Smriti.
(ii) The language used in four Vedas is classical Sanskrit.
(iii) The Ramayana and the Mahabharata are two major important components of Vedic literature. Select the correct statement(s) using. the codes given below.

(A) Only (i)
(B) Both (i) and (ii)
C) Both (ii) and (iii)
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)

The correct option is: (A) Only (i) Explanation: Vedic literature is divided into two parts: Shruti (what is heard) and Smriti (what is remembered). However, the language of the Vedas is Vedic Sanskrit, not classical Sanskrit. The Ramayana and Mahabharata are important epics, but they are part of Itihasa, not Vedic literature.

4. Match the epigraphs in List-I with the rulers who issued them in List-II:

List-I. List-II
a. Barganga. 1. Bhaskaravarman
b. Nidhanpur 2. Bhutivarman
c. Hayunthal. 3. Gopalavarman
d. Gachtal. 4. Harjaravarman

Select the correct option using the codes given below.
(A) a b c d
4 3 1 2
(B) a b c d
4 2 3 1
(C) a b c d
2 1 3 4
(D) a b c d
2 1 4 3

The correct answer is : (D) - a. Barganga - 2. Bhutivarman - b. Nidhanpur - 1. Bhaskaravarman - c. Hayunthal - 4. Harjaravarman - d. Gachtal - 3. Gopalavarman

5. Which of the following Puranas contain(s) references to ancient Assam?

(i) Markandeya
(ii) Skanda
(iii) Naradiya
(iv) Vishnu

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) Only (1) and (iv)
(B) Only (iv)
(C) Only (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

The correct option is: (D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv). Explanation: All four Puranas—Markandeya, Skanda, Naradiya, and Vishnu—contain references to ancient Assam. These texts provide insights into the geography, culture, and history of the region, illustrating its significance in ancient Indian literature.

6. The search and rescue operation initiated by the Government of India to aid Syria and Turkey after the devastating earthquake on 6 February, 2023 is named as

(A) Operation Maitree
(B) Operation Aid
(C) Operation Safety
(D) Operation Dost.

The correct option is: (D) Operation Dost.Explanation: Operation Dost was the name given to the search and rescue operation initiated by the Government of India to assist Syria and Turkey following the catastrophic earthquake on February 6, 2023. This operation involved sending rescue teams, medical supplies, and humanitarian aid to the affected areas.

7. Which statements regarding Periplus of the Erythraean Sea are true?

(i) The text was written in Greek traders involved for mercantile activities. in
(ii) The text survives in the form of10th century manuscript.
(iii) The manuscript has errors and omission.
(iv) It is a work of multiple authors. Select the correct answer using the codes given below..

(A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(B) Only (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(C) Only (i), (ii) and (iii)
(D) Only (i), (ii) and (iv)

The correct option is: (C) Only (i), (ii), and (iii) Explanation: 1. Statement (i) is true: The Periplus of the Erythraean Sea was indeed written in Greek and focuses on the trade routes and ports of the Red Sea and Indian Ocean, intended for Greek traders. 2. Statement (ii) is true: The text survives in a manuscript from the 10th century. 3. Statement (iii) is true: The manuscript contains various errors and omissions due to its transmission over time. 4. Statement (iv) is false: The Periplus is attributed to a single author, often believed to be a Greek merchant or sailor.

8. For which of the following items, Alauddin Khilji sought to fix the cost?

(i) Sugarcane
(ii) Diamond
(iii) Grain
(iv) Fish

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) Only (ii) and (iii)
(B) Only (i) and (ii)
(C) Only (i), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

The correct option is: (D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv). Explanation: Alauddin Khilji implemented price controls on various essential commodities, including sugarcane, diamonds, grain, and fish. His policies aimed to regulate the market and prevent hoarding, thereby stabilizing prices during his reign.

9. The verses of which of the following Sufi saints are found in the Adi Granth of the Sikhs?

(i) Nizamuddin Auliya
(ii) Farid-ud-Din
(iii) Khwaja Moinuddin Chishti
(iv) Bakhtiar Kaki

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) Only (i)
(B) Only (ii) and (iii)
(C) Only [iv]
(D) Only (ii)

The correct option is: (D) Only (ii)Explanation: The verses of Farid-ud-Din (often referred to as Baba Farid) are included in the Adi Granth of the Sikhs. His devotional poetry is significant in Sikhism, while the other Sufi saints listed (Nizamuddin Auliya, Khwaja Moinuddin Chishti, and Bakhtiar Kaki) do not have their verses included in the Adi Granth.

10. Which statements regarding the office of the Barbarua and Barphukan are correct?

(i) The posts of Barbarua and Barphukan were created during 16th century to control the newly acquired territory of the Ahom kingdom.
(ii) The posts aided in decentralization of power as the central government autonomous heads of the areas under their jurisdiction.
(iii) They were as much agents of
Select the correct answer using the codes given below as the central government autonomous heads of the areas under their jurisdiction.

(A) Only (i) and (ii)
(B) Only (ii) and (iii)
(C) Only (i) and (iii)
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)

The correct option is: (D) (i), (ii), and (iii). Explanation: 1. Statement (i) is correct: The posts of Barbarua and Barphukan were indeed created during the 16th century to manage the newly acquired territories of the Ahom kingdom. 2. Statement (ii) is correct: These posts contributed to the decentralization of power, allowing local heads to exercise a degree of autonomy while still being accountable to the central government. 3. Statement (iii) is correct: They functioned as agents of the central government while also acting as autonomous heads of the regions under their control, balancing local governance with central authority.

12. Find the correct chronology of the following Governor Generals of India:

(i) Sir John Macpherson
(ii) The Earl Cornwallis
(iii) Sir Alured Clarke
(iv) The Earl of Mornington

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(B) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)
(C) (ii),(i), (ii), (iv)
(D) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv)

The correct chronology of the Governor-Generals of India is: 1. The Earl Cornwallis (Governor-General from 1786 to 1793) 2. Sir John Macpherson (Acting Governor-General from 1785 to 1786, but not as a formally appointed Governor-General) 3. Sir Alured Clarke (Acting Governor-General from 1805 to 1807) 4. The Earl of Mornington (Governor-General from 1798 to 1805) Considering these details, the correct option for the chronology would be: (D) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv) Correct Order: - (ii) The Earl Cornwallis - (iii) Sir Alured Clarke - (i) Sir John Macpherson - (iv) The Earl of Mornington So, the closest option is (D).

13. Match the associations ( List – I ) with the years of their establishments (List – II) :

a. East India Association, London 1. 1852
b. Bombay Association 2. 1866
c. Madras Mahajan Sabha 3. 1876
d. Indian Association, Bengal 4. 1884

Select the correct option using the codes given below.

(A) a b c d
2 1 3 4
(B) a b c d
1 2 4 3
(C) a b c d
3 4 1 2
(D) a b c d
2 1 4 3

The correct answer is: (D) - a. East India Association, London - 2. 1866 - b. Bombay Association - 1. 1852 - c. Madras Mahajan Sabha - 4. 1884 - d. Indian Association, Bengal - 3. 1876

15. Arrange the following anti-British uprisings in chronological order:

(i) Patharughat Uprising
(ii) Phulaguri Uprising
(iii) Rangiya Uprising

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (i), (ii), (iii)
(B) (ii), (iii),(1)
(C) (ii), (i), (iii)
(D) (iii), (i), (ii)

The correct chronological order of the anti-British uprisings is: 1. Phulaguri Uprising (1857) 2. Patharughat Uprising (1894) 3. Rangiya Uprising (1908) Based on this order, the correct option is: (C) (ii), (i), (iii) Correct Order: - (ii) Phulaguri Uprising - (i) Patharughat Uprising - (iii) Rangiya Uprising

16. Arrange the following external invasions of Assam in chronological order:

(i) Invasion of Bakhtiyar Khilji
(ii) Invasion of Turbak
(iii) Invasion of Mir Jumla
(iv) Invasion of Sikandar Shah

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.(

(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(B) (i), (iv), (ii), (iii)
(C) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
(D) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)

The correct chronological order of the external invasions of Assam is: 1. Invasion of Bakhtiyar Khilji (1206) 2. Invasion of Turbak (circa 1257) 3. Invasion of Sikandar Shah (circa 1303) 4. Invasion of Mir Jumla (1662) Based on this order, the correct option is: (D) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii) Correct Order: - (i) Invasion of Bakhtiyar Khilji - (ii) Invasion of Turbak - (iv) Invasion of Sikandar Shah - (iii) Invasion of Mir Jumla

18. Which of the following features are regarded as the core features of ‘Rule of Law?

(i) Limitation of powers
(ii) Equality before law
(iii) Liberty and civil rights
(iv) Supremacy of law

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(B) Only (i) and (iii)
(C) Only (ii) and (iv)
(D) Only (ii), (iii) and (iv)

The correct option is: (A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) Explanation: All the listed features are regarded as core elements of the Rule of Law; 1. Limitation of powers: Ensures that governmental powers are restricted and subject to the law. 2. Equality before law: Means that all individuals, regardless of status, are treated equally under the law. 3. Liberty and civil rights: Protects individual freedoms and rights against arbitrary governance. 4. Supremacy of law: Establishes that the law is the highest authority and applies equally to all. Thus, all four features are integral to the concept of the Rule of Law.

19. Consider the following statements about the Rajya Sabha of the Indian Parliament:

(i) The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or to amend a Money Bill.
(ii) The Rajya Sabha cannot vote the Demands of Grants.
(iii) The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statement.
(iv) If any question arises regarding whether a Bill is Money Bill or not, the decision of the Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha thereon shall not be final.

Select the correct statements using the codes given below.

(A) Only (i) and (iv)
(B) Only (ii) and (iii)
(C) Only (i), (ii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Let’s analyze the statements about the Rajya Sabha: 1. (i) The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or to amend a Money Bill.- This statement is correct. The Rajya Sabha cannot amend or reject Money Bills; it can only make recommendations. 2. (ii) The Rajya Sabha cannot vote the Demands of Grants. - This statement is also correct. The Demands for Grants can only be voted by the Lok Sabha. 3. (iii) The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statement. - This statement is incorrect. The Rajya Sabha can discuss the Annual Financial Statement, but it cannot vote on it. 4. (iv) If any question arises regarding whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, the decision of the Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha thereon shall not be final. - This statement is incorrect. The Chairperson's decision on whether a Bill is a Money Bill is final. Based on this analysis, the correct statements are: (C) Only (i), (ii) and (iv)

20. Choose the correct chronological sequence of the following events in the context of recognition of human rights:

(i) Magna Carta
(ii) French Revolution
(iii) Universal Declaration of Human Rights
(iv) Adoption of the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (i), (iv), (ii), (iii)
(B) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(C) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
(D) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)

The correct chronological sequence is: (B) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) Here’s the sequence of events: 1. Magna Carta (1215) 2. French Revolution (1789) 3. Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948) 4. Adoption of the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (1966)

22. Which of the following statements about membership of the Indian Parliament is/are false?

(i) For qualifying to the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, a person must be at least 25 years and 35 years of age respectively.
(ii) A person belonging to the Scheduled Castes or the Scheduled Tribes can contest elections from constituency too. a general
(iii) If a member of the Parliament votes against the directions of his/her party, he/she can be deemed to be disqualified on the ground of defection.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) Only (i)
(B) Only (ii)
(C) Both (ii) and (iii)
(D) Both (i) and (iii)

The correct answer is (B) Only (ii). Explanation: (i) This statement is true. A person must be at least 25 years old to qualify for the Lok Sabha and 35 years old for the Rajya Sabha. (ii) This statement is false. A person belonging to the Scheduled Castes (SC) or Scheduled Tribes (ST) can contest elections from a general constituency, but they also have reserved constituencies specifically for SCs and STs. Thus, while they can contest from general constituencies, the statement may imply restrictions that don’t apply. (iii) This statement is true. According to the Anti-Defection Act, if a member votes against the direction of their party, they can be disqualified. Therefore, the only false statement is (ii).

23. Recently the Assam Cabinet approved the administrative merger of some newly formed districts with existing districts. In this context, which of the following is/are Win correct?

(i) Merger of Biswanath district with Sonitpur
(ii) Merger of Hojai district with Nagaon
(iii) Merger of Bajali district with Bongaigaon
(iv) Merger of Tamulpur district with Baksa

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) Both (ii) and (iii)
(B) Only (iii)
(C) Both (i) and (iv)
(D) Both (iii) and (iv)

To determine the correctness of the mergers in Assam, the following information is relevant: 1. Biswanath district was formed from Sonitpur and has not been merged with it. 2. Hojai district has been merged with Nagaon. 3. Bajali district has been merged with Bongaigaon. 4. Tamulpur district has been merged with Baksa. Based on this information, the correct mergers are: - (ii) Merger of Hojai district with Nagaon ✔️ - (iii) Merger of Bajali district with Bongaigaon ✔️ - (i) and (iv) are incorrect. Thus, the correct answer is: (A) Both (ii) and (iii)

25. Which of the following Protocols/ Conventions is protecting biological diversity from the risks posed by genetically modified organism?

(A) Cartagena Protocol
(B) Nagoya Protocol
(C) Bonn Convention
(D) Vienna Convention

The correct answer is: (A) Cartagena Protocol The Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety aims to protect biological diversity from the potential risks posed by genetically modified organisms (GMOs).

26. Which of the following is/are not part(s) of the Directive Principles of State Policy?

(i) Uniform Civil Code for the citizens
(ii) Promotion of international peace and security
(iii) Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions
(iv) Organization of agriculture and animal husbandry

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) Both (ii) and (iii)
(B) Both (i) and (iv)
(C) Only (i)
(D) Only (iii)

The following points can help identify which options are not part of the Directive Principles of State Policy: 1. Uniform Civil Code for the citizens - This is indeed part of the Directive Principles (Article 44). 2. Promotion of international peace and security - This is not part of the Directive Principles; it falls under the broader goals of the Constitution but is not specifically a Directive Principle. 3. Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions - This is part of the Fundamental Rights (Article 30), not the Directive Principles. 4. Organization of agriculture and animal husbandry - This is part of the Directive Principles (Article 48). Based on this analysis, the correct answer is: (A) Both (ii) and (iii)

27. Which of the following preventive detention Acts is/are not in force in India?

(1) NSA
(ii) MISA
(iii) UAPA
(iv) FEMA

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) Only (i) and (ii)
(B) Only (ii) and (iii)
(C) Only (ii) and (iv)
(D) Only (ii)

To determine which preventive detention Acts are not in force in India, let's analyze each one: 1. NSA (National Security Act) - This is currently in force. 2. MISA (Maintenance of Internal Security Act) - This Act has been repealed and is not in force. 3. UAPA (Unlawful Activities (Prevention Act) - This is currently in force. 4. FEMA (Foreign Exchange Management Act) - This is not a preventive detention act; it regulates foreign exchange and is in force. Based on this analysis, the correct answer is: (D) Only (ii)

28. Which of the following features of federalism is/are not found in the Indian Constitution?

(i) Representation of the States
(ii) Independent Judiciary
(iii) Division of Power between the Union and the State Governments
(iv) Federal Judiciary

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) Only (i) and (iv)
(B) Only (ii) and (iii)
(C) Only (ii) and (iv)
(D) Only (iv)

The correct option is: (D) Only (iv) Explanation: 1. Representation of the States: This feature is present in the Indian Constitution, particularly in the Rajya Sabha (Council of States). 2. Indepedent Judiciary: India has an independent judiciary as guaranteed by the Constitution. 3. Division of Power between the Union and the State Governments: This is a fundamental feature of federalism in India, outlined in the Constitution through the distribution of subjects in the Union List, State List, and Concurrent List. 4. Federal Judiciary: The Indian judiciary is not a federal judiciary in the traditional sense. Instead, it is a unitary judiciary with the Supreme Court at the top, which has jurisdiction over both central and state laws. Thus, option (iv) is the feature not found in the Indian Constitution as typically defined in a federal system.

29. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution enables. the State to make provision for reservation in public employment in favour of backward classes?

(A) 16(1)
(B) 16(2)
(C) 16(3)
(D) 16(4)

The correct option is: (D) 16(4) Explanation: Article 16(4) of the Indian Constitution specifically empowers the State to make provisions for the reservation of appointments or posts in favor of backward classes of citizens. This article is significant in enabling affirmative action to improve the representation of these groups in public employment.

30. A writ issued by court to some. inferior authority to transfer the matter to it for its proper consideration is called

(A) mandamus.
(B) quo warranto
(C) certiorari
(D) prohibition

The correct option is: (C) certiorari. Explanation: A writ of certiorari is issued by a higher court to an inferior authority to transfer the records of a case for review. It is used to ensure that the lower court or authority has acted within its jurisdiction and followed the proper procedure. This writ allows the higher court to examine the proceedings and make determinations regarding the legality of the actions taken by the inferior authority.

31. According the Indian Constitution, Judicial Review in India is based on

(i) Rule of Law
(ii) Procedure established by Law
(iii) Precedents and Conventions

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) Only (i)
(B) Only (ii)
(C) Only (iii)
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)

The correct option is: (D) (i), (ii) and (iii) Explanation: Judicial review in India is based on several principles, including: 1. Rule of Law: Ensures that no one is above the law, and the law applies equally to all. 2. Procedure Established by Law: This refers to the legal procedures that must be followed, and any law that violates this principle can be struck down by the judiciary. 3. Precedents and Conventions: Previous judicial decisions and established conventions play a role in guiding judicial review. Therefore, all three elements contribute to the framework of judicial review in India.

32. Which of the following statements is/are not correct about the creation of new States by the Parliament under the Article 3 of the Indian Constitution?

(i) The President of India is required to refer such a Bill to the affected State/States in order to know its/their view.
(ii) The President is bound to accept the opinion/view of the affected State/States in making recommendations to the Parliament.
(iii) The Parliament cannot introduce a Bill to this effect without the prior recommendations of the President.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) Only (i)
(B) Only (ii)
(C) Only (iii)
(D) Both (1) and (ii)

The correct option is: (B) Only (ii) Explanation: 1. Statement (i) is correct: The President is indeed required to refer such a Bill to the affected State(s) to ascertain their views before it is presented to Parliament. 2. Statement (ii) is not correct: The President is not bound to accept the views of the affected State(s). The President may consider the opinion but is not obligated to follow it. 3. Statement (iii) is correct: The Parliament cannot introduce a Bill for the creation of new States without the prior recommendation of the President. Therefore, the only incorrect statement is (ii).

33. With respect to the location. sequence of the given rivers/ mountain passes/mountain peaks, which of the following sequences is/are correct?

(i) Jhelum-Chenab-Ravi-Sutlej
(ii) Zoji La-Lipulekh-Shipki La- Jelep La
(iii) Mahendragiri-Mahabaleshwar- Doddabetta-Anamudi

select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (ii) and (iii)
(C) Only (i) and (iii)
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)

The correct option is: (D) (i), (ii) and (iii) Explanation: 1. (i) Jhelum-Chenab-Ravi-Sutlej : This sequence is correct as these rivers flow in that order from north to south across Punjab in India and Pakistan. 2. ii) Zoji La-Lipulekh-Shipki La-Jelep La : This sequence is correct. Zoji La is in Jammu and Kashmir, Lipulekh is in Uttarakhand, Shipki La is in Himachal Pradesh, and Jelep La is in Sikkim, arranged geographically as stated. 3. (iii) Mahendragiri-Mahabaleshwar-Doddabetta-Anamudi: This sequence is also correct. Mahendragiri is in Odisha, Mahabaleshwar in Maharashtra, Doddabetta in Tamil Nadu, and Anamudi in Kerala, representing the southward sequence of peaks. Thus, all the provided sequences are correct.

34. Read the following two statements:Statement

1:Sex ratio of population in Kerala is higher than national average.Statement
2:The life expectancy of female. population in Kerala is higher than male population.

Select the correct answer from the following options.

(A) Both 1 and 2 are correct, and 2 explains 1
(B) Both 1 and 2 are correct, but 2 does not explain 1
(C) Only 1 is correct, but 2 is wrong
(D) Only I is wrong, but 2 is correct

The correct option is: (B) Both 1 and 2 are correct, but 2 does not explain 1 Explanation: 1. Statement 1 is correct: Kerala has a higher sex ratio compared to the national average in India. 2. Statement 2 is also correct: The life expectancy of females in Kerala is indeed higher than that of males. However, the fact that the life expectancy of females is higher does not explain the higher sex ratio. Thus, both statements are true, but one does not justify the other.

35. With reference to the tribes of North- East India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

(i) The tribe is mainly concentrated in Mokokchung district of Nagaland.
(ii) The Sherdukpens are mainly concentrated in West Kameng district of Arunachal Pradesh.
(iii) The Reangs are mainly concentrated in Mizoram. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) Only (i)
(B) Only (i) and (ii)
(C) Only (i) and (iii)
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)

The correct option is: (D) (i), (ii) and (iii) Explanation: 1. Statement (i) is correct: The Ao Naga tribe is primarily concentrated in the Mokokchung district of Nagaland. 2. Statement (ii) is correct: The Sherdukpen tribe is mainly found in the West Kameng district of Arunachal Pradesh. 3. Statement (iii) is correct: The Reangs, also known as Braus, are primarily concentrated in Mizoram. All three statements are accurate regarding the tribes of North-East India.

36. The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) adopted by the UNDP in 2015 contain certain number of goals to be achieved by 2030. What is the total number of goals to be achieved as per SDG?

(A) 19
(B) 17
(C) 21
(D) 26

The correct option is: (B) 17 Explanation: The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) adopted by the United Nations in 2015 comprise a total of 17 goals aimed at addressing various global challenges, including poverty, inequality, climate change, environmental degradation, peace, and justice, all to be achieved by the year 2030.

37. With reference to the Forest Survey Report, 2021 of the Government of India, consider the following statements:

(1) Madhya Pradesh has the largest area under forest cover.
(ii) Mizoram has the highest percentage of area under forest cover.
(iii) Per capita availability of forest- land is the highest in Sikkim.

Select the correct statement(s) using the codes given below.

(A) Only (i)
(B)Only (i) and (ii)
(C) Only (ii) and (iii)
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)

The correct option is: (B) Only (i) and (ii) Explanation: 1. Statement (i) is correct: Madhya Pradesh has the largest area under forest cover in India, as per the Forest Survey Report, 2021. 2. Statement (ii) is correct: Mizoram has the highest percentage of area under forest cover among Indian states. 3. Statement (iii) is incorrect: Sikkim does not have the highest per capita availability of forest land; rather, it is known for its rich biodiversity and significant forest area but does not top this particular metric. Thus, the correct statements are (i) and (ii).

38. Match the rivers ( List-I ) with the places on their banks (List -II) in Assam :

     List - I.                     List -II

a. Barak. 1. Sivasagar
b. Brahmaputra. 2. Golaghat
c. Dikhow 3. Silchar
d. Dhansiri 4. Goalpara

Select the correct option using the codes given below.

(A) a b c d
4 3 2 1
(B) a b c d
1 4 2 3
(C) a b c d
3 4 2 1
(D) a b c d
3 4 1 2

The correct option is : (C) - a. Barak - 3. Silchar - b. Brahmaputra - 4. Goalpara - c. Dikhow - 2. Golaghat - d. Dhansiri - 1. Sivasagar

39. With reference to locations of some countries, which of the following statements is/are correct?

(i) The Equator passes through Colombia, Kenya Philippines.
(ii) The Tropic of Cancer passes through Mexico, Egypt and Taiwan.
(iii) The Tropic of Capricorn passes through Paraguay, South Africa and Australia.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (ii) and (iii)
(C) Only (iii)
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)

The correct option is: (B) Only (ii) and (iii)Explanation: 1. Statement (i) is incorrect: The Equator passes through Colombia and Kenya, but it does not pass through the Philippines. Instead, it passes through countries like Ecuador and Brazil. 2. Statement (ii) is correct: The Tropic of Cancer does pass through Mexico, Egypt, and Taiwan. 3. Statement (iii) is correct: The Tropic of Capricorn passes through Paraguay, South Africa, and Australia. Therefore, the correct statements are (ii) and (iii).

40. With reference to National Highways of India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

(i) Among the Indian States, Maharashtra occupies the top position in terms of the total length of National Highways.
(ii) NH 42 between Srinagar and Kanya kumari is the longest Highway of the National country.
(iii) NH 27 is the longest East-West National Highway connecting Porbandar and Silchar. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) Only (i)
(B) Only (i) and (ii)
(C) Only (i) and (iii)
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)

The correct option is: (C) Only (i) and (iii). Explanation 1. Statement (i) is correct: Maharashtra does occupy the top position in terms of the total length of National Highways among Indian states. 2.Statement (ii) is incorrect: The longest National Highway in India is NH 44, which runs from Srinagar to Kanyakumari, not NH 42. 3. Statement (iii) is correct: NH 27 is indeed the longest East-West National Highway, connecting Porbandar in Gujarat to Silchar in Assam. Therefore, the correct statements are (i) and (iii).

41. With reference to railway networks in Assam, consider the following statements:

(i) Railway line connecting Bhalukpong in Arunachal Pradesh starts from Balipara in Assam.
(ii) There are two railway bridges across the river Brahmaputra in Assam.
(iii) Railway line connecting Naharlagun in Arunachal Pradesh starts from Harmuti in Assam.

Select the correct statement(s) using the codes given below.

(A) Only (i)
(B) Only (i) and (ii)
(C) Only (i) and (iii)
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)

The correct option is: (C) Only (i) and (iii) Explanation: Statement (i) is correct: The railway line connecting Bhalukpong in Arunachal Pradesh indeed starts from Balipara in Assam. Statement (ii) is incorrect: There is currently only one major railway bridge across the Brahmaputra River in Assam, which is the Bogibeel Bridge. There is another bridge being constructed, but as of now, it has not been completed. Statement (iii) is correct: The railway line connecting Naharlagun in Arunachal Pradesh starts from Harmuti in Assam. Therefore, the correct statements are (i) and (iii).

42. Which of the following Fundamental Rights are available only to the citizens of India?

(i) Right to equal opportunity the matter of public in employment
(ii) Equality before law
(iii) Right to freedom of religion
(iv) Right to freedom under Article 19

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(B) Only (i) and (iv)
(C) Only (i), (ii) and (iii)
(D) Only (ii) and (iv)

The correct option is: (B) Only (i) and (iv) Explanation: 1. Right to equal opportunity in the matter of public employment (i): This right is available only to the citizens of India. 2. Equality before law (ii): This right is available to both citizens and non-citizens. 3. Right to freedom of religion (iii): This right is also available to both citizens and non-citizens. 4. Right to freedom under Article 19 (iv): This right, which includes the freedom of speech, assembly, association, movement, residence, and profession, is available only to the citizens of India. Therefore, the rights available only to citizens are (i) and (iv).

43. With reference to the tributaries of the Brahmaputra and Barak rivers in Assam, which of the following is/are correct?

(i) Subansiri, Jiabharali, Dikhow, Manas (North bank tributaries of the Brahmaputra)
(ii) Burhi Dihing, Bhogdoi, Kopili, Krishnai (South bank tribu- taries of the Brahmaputra)
(iii) Dhaleswari, Raidak, Longai, Jiri (Tributaries of the Barak)

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (i) and (iii)
(C) Only (ii)
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)

The correct answer is: (B) Only (i) and (iii) Explanation: 1. Statement (i) is correct: Subansiri, Jiabharali, Dikhow, and Manas are north bank tributaries of the Brahmaputra. 2. Statement (ii) is incorrect: Burhi Dihing and Bhogdoi are south bank tributaries of the Brahmaputra, but Krishnai is a north bank tributary. 3. Statement (iii) is correct: Dhaleswari, Raidak, Longai, and Jiri are tributaries of the Barak river.

44. With respect to different ethnic groups of Assam, which of the following statements is/are correct?

(i) The Bodos are the largest tribe in Assam followed by the Dimasas.
(ii) The traditional religion of the Mising tribe is Donyi-Poloism.
(iii) The Tiwas are inhabitants of both the plains and the hills.
(iv) Baikho is a traditional festival of the Karbis.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) Only (i)
(B) Only (i) and (iii)
(C) Only (ii) and (iii)
(D) Only (i), (ii) and (iv)

The correct option is: (D) Only (i), (ii) and (iv) Explanation: 1. Statement (i) is correct: The Bodos are indeed the largest ethnic group in Assam, followed by the Dimasas. 2. Statement (ii) is correct: The traditional religion of the Mising tribe is known as Donyi-Poloism, which is centered around the worship of the sun (Donyi) and the moon (Polo). 3. **Statement (iii)** is incorrect: The Tiwas (or Lalungs) are primarily inhabitants of the plains, particularly in the Morigaon and Kamrup districts, rather than both the plains and the hills. 4. **Statement (iv)** is correct: **Baikho** is a traditional festival celebrated by the **Karbis**. Thus, the correct statements are (i), (ii), and (iv).

45. With reference to geopolitical situation of selected districts of Assam, which of the following statements is/are correct?

(i) All BTR districts share border with Bhutan.
(ii) Cachar district shares border with the States of Manipur, Mizoram, Tripura and Meghalaya.
(iii) The districts of Dhubri, Cachar and Karimganj share borderwith Bangladesh.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) Only (i)
(B) Only (i) and (ii)
(C) Only (i) and (iii)
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)

The correct option is: (C) Only (i) and (iii) Explanation: 1. Statement (i) is correct: All districts in the Bodoland Territorial Region (BTR), which includes Baksa, Baksa, and Chirang, share a border with Bhutan. 2. Statement (ii) is incorrect: Cachar district shares its border with Manipur and Mizoram, but it does not share a border with Tripura or Meghalaya. 3. Statement (iii) is correct: The districts of Dhubri, Cachar, and Karimganj do indeed share a border with Bangladesh. Therefore, the correct statements are (i) and (iii).

46. In which year, Assam Region was from the Bengal separated Presidency?

(A) 1871
(B) 1870
(C) 1876
(D) 1874

The correct option is: (D) 1874 Explanation: The Assam region was separated from the Bengal Presidency and became a part of the Bengal Government as a separate entity in the year 1874. This led to the establishment of a distinct administration for Assam.

47. The Aspirational District Programme (ADP) was launched by which of the following organizations?

(A) National Development Council
(B) North-East Council
(C) Prime Minister’s Office
(D) NITI Aayog

The correct option is: (D) NITI Aayog Explanation: The Aspirational District Programme (ADP) was launched by NITI Aayog in January 2018. The program aims to transform the districts that are lagging in key social indicators and promote holistic development through targeted interventions.

48. Which of the following is a necessary condition for the issue of a writ of quo warranto?

(A) To secure the release of a person who has been imprisoned by a court of law on a criminal charge
(B) To direct a public officer or the government not to enforce a law which is unconstitutional
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) The office must be public and it must be created by a statute or by the Constitution itself

The correct option is: (D) The office must be public and it must be created by a statute or by the Constitution itself. Explanation: A writ of quo warranto is issued to inquire into the legality of a person holding a public office. For this writ to be issued, it is necessary that the office in question is a public office and has been created by a statute or the Constitution.

49. Zoonosis refers to any disease or infection that is naturally transmissible from

(1) human to human.
(ii) animal to human.
(iii) animal to animal
(iv) bird to animal

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) Only (i) and (iii)
(B) Both (i) and
(ii)(C) Both (iii) and (iv)
(D) Only (ii)

The correct option is: (D) Only (ii) Explanation: Zoonosis refers specifically to diseases or infections that are naturally transmissible from animals to humans. While zoonoses can involve transmission between animals (such as animal to animal), the definition of zoonosis primarily focuses on the transmission from animals to humans, making option (ii) the correct choice.

50. Who among the following environ- mentalists/organizations has/have. been awarded the Champion of Earth Award’, top UN award for environment for 2022?

(i) Aaranyak
(ii) Cecile Bibiane Ndjebet
(iii) Antonio Aucca
(iv) Purnima Devi Barman

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) Both (i) and (ii)
(B) Both (i) and (iii)
(C) Both (ii) and (iv)
(D) Only (iv)

The correct option is: (C) Both (ii) and (iv) Explanation: The Champion of the Earth Award for 2022 was awarded to Cecile Bibiane Ndjebet and Purnima Devi Barman for their significant contributions to environmental conservation and sustainable practices. Aaranyak and Antonio Aucca were not recipients of this award in 2022.

51. Which of the following is not a correct option about the Governor’s power to make Ordinance?

(A) The Governor may promulgate Ordinance when Legislature or both the Houses thereof are in session.
(B) Article 213 of the Constitution empowers the Governor to promulgate Ordinances.
(C) The Ordinance may be withdrawn by the Governor at any time.
(D) It is not a discretionary power of the Governor.

The correct option is: (A) The Governor may promulgate Ordinance when Legislature or both the Houses thereof are in session. Explanation: This statement is not correct because the Governor can only promulgate an Ordinance when the Legislature is not in session. Article 213 of the Indian Constitution empowers the Governor to promulgate Ordinances only during the recess of the Legislature. The other statements about the Governor's power to make Ordinances are correct.

52. Match the medicinal plant found in Assam (List – I ) with the use of these plants for treatment of various illnesses (List -2) :
List – I List – II

a. Withania somnifera. 1. High blood
( Ashwagandha)
b. Lamiaceae (Tulsi). 2. Glaucoma
c. Vanda coerula. 3. Bronchitis
( Bhatou Phul)
d. Rauvolfa serpentina 4. Stress and anxiety

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) a b c d
4 3 1 2
(B) a b c d
4 3 2 1
(C) a b c d
3 4 2 1
(D) a b c d
3 4 1 2

The correct option is: (B) a. Withania somnifera (Ashwagandha) - 4. Stress and anxiety b. Lamiaceae (Tulsi) - 3. Bronchitis c. Vanda coerula (Bhatou Phul) - 2. Glaucoma d. Rauvolfia serpentina - 1. High blood

53. Who among the following was the first Assamese to contest the Presidential Election in 1952 against Dr. Rajendra Prasad?

(A) Nagendra Nath Das
(B) Jnanadabhiram Barua
(C) Hem Barua
(D) Chandradhar Barua

The correct option is: (A) Nagendra Nath Das Explanation: Nagendra Nath Das was the first Assamese to contest the Presidential Election in 1952 against Dr. Rajendra Prasad, who was ultimately re-elected as the President of India.

54. The international convention on the control of transboundary movement of hazardous waste and their disposal in order to protect human health and the environment against the adverse effects of hazardous waste is called

(A) Stockholm Convention
(B) Basel Convention
(C) Minamata Convention
(D) Rotterdam Convention

The correct option is: (B) Basel Convention Explanation: The Basel Convention is an international treaty that aims to protect human health and the environment from the adverse effects of hazardous waste. It specifically addresses the control of transboundary movement of hazardous waste and their disposal.

55. The head of the government and leader of the House in Legislative Assembly of Assam Province in British India was known as the

(A) Chief Minister
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Governor
(D) Speaker

The correct option is: (A) Chief Minister Explanation: In the context of the Legislative Assembly of the Assam Province during British India, the head of the government and the leader of the House was referred to as the Chief Minister. This position is similar to the modern-day role of Chief Ministers in Indian states.

56. The Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) will start a project Network for Space Object Tracking and Analysis (NETRA) in Assam near Guwahati. Where will the proposed radar facility be established?

(A) Mirza
(B) Chaygaon
(C) Changsari
(D) Chandrapur

The correct option is: (A) Mirza Explanation: The Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) plans to establish the proposed radar facility for the Network for Space Object Tracking and Analysis (NETRA) in Mirza, near Guwahati, Assam. This facility will play a crucial role in tracking and analyzing space debris and other space objects.

57. With respect to India’s nuclear programme, consider the following statements:

(i) ADITYA is the name of India’s indigenously developed tokamak.
(ii) ADITYA is a breeder reactor
(iii) ADITYA is a fusion reactor.
(iv) ADITYA is a fission reactor.

Select the correct statement(s) using the codes given below.

(A) Only (i)
(B) Only (i) and (ii)
(C) Only (i) and (iii)
(D) Only (i) and (iv)

The correct option is: (C) Only (i) and (iii) Explanation: 1. Statement (i) is correct: ADITYA is indeed the name of India's indigenously developed tokamak, which is a type of device used to confine hot plasma in fusion research. 2. Statement (ii) is incorrect: ADITYA is not a breeder reactor. 3. Statement (iii) is correct: ADITYA is designed as a fusion reactor, aiming to achieve nuclear fusion. 4. Statement (iv) is incorrect: ADITYA is not a fission reactor. Thus, the correct statements are (i) and (iii).

58. Arrange the following places in ascending order of local acceleration due to gravity:

(i) Polar region of the earth’s surface at the sea level
(ii) Surface of the moon
(iii) Centre of the earth
(iv) Equatorial region on the earth’s surface at the sea level

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(B) (iii), (ii), (iv), (i)
(C) (iii), (ii), (i), (iv)
(D) (iii), (i), (ii), (iv)

The correct option is: (C) (iii), (ii), (i), (iv) Explanation: 1. Centre of the earth (iii): At the center of the Earth, the acceleration due to gravity is zero because the mass is evenly distributed in all directions. 2. Surface of the moon (ii): The moon has a lower gravity (approximately 1/6th of Earth's gravity). 3. Polar region of the earth's surface at sea level (i): Gravity is slightly higher at the poles compared to the equator due to the Earth’s shape and rotation. 4. Equatorial region on the earth's surface at sea level (iv): The equator experiences the lowest gravity because of the centrifugal force due to the Earth's rotation. Thus, the order from lowest to highest acceleration due to gravity is (iii), (ii), (i), (iv).

59. Which of the following is not one of the priorities termed ‘Saptarishi’, adopted in the Union Budget for FY 2023-24 to guide the country towards ‘Amrit Kaal’, thus providing a blueprint for an empowered and inclusive economy?

(A) Population Control
(B) Youth Power
(C) Green Growth
(D) Reaching the last mile

The correct answer is: (A) Population Control In the Union Budget for FY 2023-24, the 'Saptarishi' priorities are: 1. Inclusive Development 2. Reaching the Last Mile 3. Infrastructure and Investment 4. Unleashing the Potential 5. Green Growth 6. Youth Power 7. Financial Sector Population Control is not included among these priorities.

60. Consider the following statements:

(i) Optical fibre communication is based on the principle of refraction of light.
(ii) Optical fibre communication is based on the principle of total internal reflection of light.
(iii) In optical fibre communication, light is the carrier wave.
(iv) Optical fibre permits communication over distances only.

Select the correct statement(s) using the codes given below.

(A) Only (i) and (ii)
(B) Only(ii)
(C) Only (ii) and (iii)
(D) Only (iii) and (iv)

The correct option is: (C) Only (ii) and (iii) Explanation: 1. Statement (i) is incorrect: Optical fibre communication is primarily based on the principle of total internal reflection of light, not just refraction. 2. Statement (ii) is correct: It accurately states that optical fibre communication relies on total internal reflection, allowing light to be guided through the fibre. 3. Statement (iii) is correct: In optical fibre communication, light indeed serves as the carrier wave, transmitting information. 4. Statement (iv) is incorrect: Optical fibre communication is not limited to distances only; it can also be used for high-speed data transfer, including short-range applications. Thus, the correct statements are (ii) and (iii).

61. ‘Bhaskarabda’, which has been added to the official calendar of the Government of Assam, is counted from

(A) the date of ascension of Bhaskaravarman
(B) the date of birth of Bhaskaravarman
(C) the date of death of Bhaskaravarman
(D) None of the above

The correct option is: (A) the date of ascension of Bhaskaravarman. Explanation: The 'Bhaskarabda' calendar is named after Bhaskaravarman, the king of Kamarupa, and it counts years from the date of his ascension to the throne. This calendar is used in Assam and is significant in the cultural context of the region.

62. 23rd January, Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose’s birthday, celebrated in India as

(A) Parakram Diwas
(B) Shourya Diwas
(C) Deshprem Diwas
(D) Vijay Diwas

The correct option is: (A) Parakram Diwas. Explanation: January 23rd, the birthday of Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose, is celebrated as Parakram Diwas in India to honor his contributions to the Indian independence movement and to inspire people with his ideals of courage and determination.

63. Find the Dada Saheb Phalke awardees from the following:

(i) Dr. Bhupen Hazarik
(ii) Asha Parekh
(iii) Rajinikanth
(iv) Amitabh Bachchan

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) Only (i) and (iv)
(B) Only (i), (ii) and (iv)
(C) Only (i) and (ii)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

The correct option is: (D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv). Explanation: All the listed individuals have received the Dada Saheb Phalke Award. Dr. Bhupen Hazarika received the award in 1992, Asha Parekh in 1994, Rajinikanth in 2016, and Amitabh Bachchan in 2001, recognizing their significant contributions to Indian cinema.

64. Which State was awarded the Most Improved State under PMAY (U) North-Eastern region in the special awards category for the year 2021 by the Government of India?

(A) Assam
(B) Arunachal Pradesh
(C) Sikkim
(D) Tripura

The correct answer is: (D) Tripura. Explanation: Tripura was awarded the Most Improved State under the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (Urban) for the North-Eastern region in the special awards category for the year 2021 by the Government of India.

65. The tallest statue in the world is located in

(A) Henan, China
(B) Kevadia, India
(C) Sagaing, Myanmar
(D) Ibaraki Prefecture, Japan

The correct answer is: (B) Kevadia, India. Explanation: The Statue of Unity, located in Kevadia, Gujarat, India, is the tallest statue in the world, standing at a height of 182 meters (597 feet). It was inaugurated on October 31, 2018, in honor of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, a key figure in India's independence movement.

66. When drenched clouds are not able to cause rain because of the rising movement of extremely hot current of air, it leads to

(A) cloudbursts
(B) thunderstorm
(C) creation of rain shadow area
(D) cyclone

The correct answer is: (C) creation of rain shadow area. Explanation: A rain shadow area is formed when moist air rises over mountains, cools, and loses moisture in the form of precipitation. If the air continues to rise and become extremely hot, it can lead to a situation where the clouds do not release rain as they continue to rise and dry out. This process results in one side of the mountain receiving rainfall, while the other side, or the rain shadow area, remains dry.

69. Consider the following statements about the famous Assamese poet Nilmoni Phookan who passed away on 19th January, 2023:

(i) He was honoured with the Jnanpith Award in 2021.
(ii) His first anthology is Surya Henu Nami Ahe Ei Nodiyedi.
(iii) He was awarded Sahitya Akademi Award in anthology
(iv) He was the President of Assam Sahitya Sabha in 2015.

Select the correct statements using the codes given below.

(A) Only (i) and (ii)
(B) Only (ii) and (iii)
(C) Only (i), (ii) and (iii)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

The correct answer is: (C) Only (i), (ii), and (iii) Explanation: 1. Statement (i): Nilmoni Phookan was indeed awarded the Jnanpith Award in 2021. 2. Statement (ii): His first anthology is titled Surya Henu Nami Ahe Ei

70. The autobiography of former Chief Justice of India, Sri Ranjan Gogoi, is titled

(A) The Man and the Judge
(B) Before Memory Fades
(C) Justice for the Judge
(D) In Pursuit of Justice

The correct answer is: (A) The Man and the Judge This is the title of the autobiography of former Chief Justice of India, Sri Ranjan Gogoi.

71. Pick the Indian film from the options given below which was not nominated for Academy Awards (Oscars).

(A) Mother India
(B) Pather Panchali
(C) Salaam Bombay
(D) Lagaan

The Indian film that was not nominated for Academy Awards (Oscars) is: (D) Lagaan While Lagaan was nominated for an Oscar, it is often confused with being the only one among the other listed films that wasn't. The correct answer should be none of the films listed in the options above because all of them were indeed nominated for Oscars. If you meant which one was nominated at the least level, Lagaan is the answer as it was nominated in the 2002 Academy Awards. Please verify the query again if you have specific requirements.

72. From the following statements pertaining to the World Economic Forum (WEF), find the correct statement(s):

(i) The WEF is a platform under the International Monetary Fund (IMF).
(ii) The WEF is an independent. department of the World Bank.
(iii) The WEF is an International Organization for Public-Private Cooperation.
(iv) The WEF was established in 1971 as a not-for-profit founda- tion and is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland.

(A) Only (i)
(B) Only (ii)
(C) Only (iii) and (iv)
(D) Only (ii) and (iii)

The correct statements regarding the World Economic Forum (WEF) are: (iii) The WEF is an International Organization for Public-Private Cooperation. (iv) The WEF was established in 1971 as a not-for-profit foundation and is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland. Thus, the correct answer is: (C) Only (iii) and (iv) Statements (i) and (ii) are incorrect because the WEF is not a platform under the IMF nor is it a department of the World Bank.

73. Who among the following has not been awarded Padma Shri in 2023 from Assam?

(A) Nipon Goswami
(B) Hem Chandra Goswami
(C) Hemoprova Chutia
(D) Ramkuiwangbe Jene

The individual who has not been awarded Padma Shri in 2023 from Assam is: (D) Ramkuiwangbe Jene. The other three—Nipon Goswami, Hem Chandra Goswami, and Hemoprova Chutia—were recognized with the Padma Shri award in 2023.

74. Which of the following clusters are correct representations of the G-20 member countries?

(i) Australia, Canada, Saudi Arabia
(ii) Senegal, Mexico, Italy
(iii) United States, Turkey, Argentina
(iv) Peru, Congo, South Africa

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) Only (i) and (ii)
(B) Only (i) and (iii)
(C) Only (i), (ii) and (iii)
(D) Only (i), (iii) and (iv)

The correct answer is: (C) Only (i), (ii), and (iii). Here’s the breakdown of the clusters: 1. (i) Australia, Canada, Saudi Arabia - All are G-20 member countries. 2. (ii) Senegal, Mexico, Italy - All are G-20 member countries. 3. (iii) United States, Turkey, Argentina - All are G-20 member countries. 4. (iv) Peru, Congo, South Africa - This is incorrect because Congo is not a G-20 member country. So, options (i), (ii), and (iii) are correct representations of the G-20 member countries.

75. In which of the following climatic conditions, the problem of saliniza- tion in farmland due to irrigation is the most prominent?

(A) Dry and cold
(B) Dry and hot
(C) Wet and hot
(D) Dry, hot and windy

The correct answer is: (B) Dry and hot

76. Consider the following statements with regard to the international peace research organization SIPRI:

(i) Its full form is Sweden International Peace Research Initiative.
(ii) SIPRI is located at Gothenburg.
(iii) Its full form is Stockholm International Peace Research Institute.
(iv) The headquarters of SIPRI is at Solna.

Select the correct statements using the codes given below.

(A) Only (i) and (ii)
(B) Only (ii) and (iii)
(C) Only (iii) and (iv)
(D) Only (i) and (iv)

The correct answer is: (C) Only (iii) and (iv) Explanation: 1. Statement (i) is incorrect: The full form is Stockholm International Peace Research Institute. 2. Statement (ii) is incorrect: SIPRI is located in Solna, which is a part of the Stockholm metropolitan area, not Gothenburg. 3. Statement (iii) is correct. 4. Statement (iv) is correct: The headquarters of SIPRI is in Solna.

77. Which of the following statements are correct with regard to the Orunodoi Scheme of the Government of Assam?

(i) It envisages poverty alleviation.
(ii) It envisages socio-economic inclusion of financially vulnerable families.
(iii) It aims to generate employment through intermittent financial assistance.
(iv) It provides minimum cash flow to underprivileged families.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) Only (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) Only (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(C) Only (i), (iii) and (iv)
(D) Only (i), (ii) and (iv)

The correct answer is: (D) Only (i), (ii) and (iv) Explanation: 1. Statement (i) is correct: The Orunodoi Scheme aims at poverty alleviation. 2. Statement (ii) is correct: It focuses on the socio-economic inclusion of financially vulnerable families. 3. Statement (iii) is incorrect: The scheme does not primarily aim to generate employment; it focuses on providing financial assistance. 4. Statement (iv) is correct: It provides a minimum cash flow to underprivileged families to support their basic needs.

78. Consider the following statements. regarding the Golden Globe Award- winning song ‘Naatu Naatu’:

(i) It is composed by M. М. Keeravani.
(ii) It is the first time that an Indian song has won a Golden Globe.
(iii) The song is choreographed by Prabhu Deva.

Select the correct statements using the codes given below.

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) Only (i) and (ii)
(C) Only (i) and (iii)
(D) Only (ii) and (iii)

The correct answer is: (B) Only (i) and (ii) Explanation: 1. Statement (i) is correct: Naatu Naatu is composed by M. M. Keeravani. 2.Statement (ii) is correct: It is indeed the first time that an Indian song has won a Golden Globe Award. 3. Statement (iii) is incorrect: The song is not

79. Consider the following statements:

(i) 2023 has been declared as the International Year of Millets’ by the United Nations.
(ii) India is the largest producer of millets in the world.
(iii) India sponsored the proposal for the International Year of Millets which was accepted by the United Nations General Assembly.

Select the correct statement(s) using the codes given below.

(A) Only (i) and (ii)
(B) Only (i)
(C) Only (ii)
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)

The correct answer is: (D) (i), (ii) and (iii) Explanation: 1. Statement (i) is correct: The United Nations declared 2023 as the International Year of Millets. 2. Statement (ii) is correct: India is indeed the largest producer of millets in the world. 3. Statement (iii) is correct: India sponsored the proposal for the International Year of Millets, and it was accepted by the United Nations General Assembly.

80. Which of the following is/are not in the objectives of the NEP 2020?

(i) To increase public investment on education up to 10% of GDP by 2030
(ii) To increase Gross Enrollment Ratio in higher education to 50%
(iii) To create provision of Academic Bank of Credit

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) Only (i)
(B) Only (i) and (ii)
(C) Only (ii)
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)

The correct answer is: (A) Only (i) Explanation: 1. Statement (i) is not an objective of the NEP 2020: While the NEP 2020 emphasizes increasing public investment in education, it does not specifically set a target of 10% of GDP by 2030. 2. Statement (ii) is an objective of the NEP 2020: It aims to increase the Gross Enrollment Ratio in higher education to 50%. 3. **Statement (iii)** is also an objective of the NEP 2020: The policy includes the creation of an Academic Bank of Credit to enhance flexibility in higher education.

81. Arrange the following States in descending order in terms of their sex ratio as per the 2011 Census:

(i) Arunachal Pradesh
(ii) Mizoram
(iii) Assam
(iv) Nagaland

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(B) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv)
(C) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
(D) (iv), (i), (ii), (iii)

The correct answer is: (B) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv) In descending order of sex ratio as per the 2011 Census, the arrangement is: 1. Mizoram 2. Assam 3. Arunachal Pradesh 4. Nagaland

82. Assam shares her borders with

(i) Manipur
(ii) Tripura
(iii) Sikkim
(iv) West Bengal

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) Only (i) and (ii)
(B) Only (ii) and (iii)
(C) Only (i), (ii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

The correct answer is: (C) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii) Explanation: According to the 2011 Census of India, the sex ratios for the mentioned states are as follows: 1. Mizoram: Highest sex ratio among the given states. 2. Arunachal Pradesh: Comes next in terms of a higher sex ratio. 3. Nagaland: Followed by Nagaland. 4. Assam: Has the lowest sex ratio among these four states. Thus, the descending order in terms of sex ratio is Mizoram (ii), Arunachal Pradesh (i), Nagaland (iv), and Assam (iii).

83. Consider the following statements about Mauna Loa:

(i) It is associated with volcanic eruption.
(ii) It is located in Hawaii.
(iii) It is associated with forest fire.
(iv) It is located in Australia.

Select the correct statement(s) using the codes given below.

(A) Only (i) and (ii)
(B) Only (ii) and (iii)
(C) Only (iii) and (iv)
(D) Only (ii)

The correct answer is: (A) Only (i) and (ii) Explanation: 1. Statement (i): Correct. Mauna Loa is an active volcano and is indeed associated with volcanic eruptions. 2. Statement (ii): Correct. Mauna Loa is located in Hawaii. 3. Statement (iii): Incorrect. Mauna Loa is not specifically associated with forest fires; it is primarily known for its volcanic activity. 4. Statement (iv): Incorrect. Mauna Loa is not located in Australia; it is in Hawaii. Therefore, the correct statements are (i) and (ii).

84. ‘One Earth, One Family, One Future’ is/was the motto of the

(A) Earth Summit, Rio de Janeiro, 1992
(B) G-20 New Delhi Summit, 2023
(C) Climate Summit, Sharm El- Sheikh, 2022
(D) World Economic Forum Annual Meeting, Davos, 2023

The correct answer is: (B) G-20 New Delhi Summit, 2023 Explanation: The motto One Earth, One Family, One Future was adopted during the G-20 New Delhi Summit held in 2023, emphasizing global cooperation and sustainability.

85. Consider the following statements regarding World Cup Football, 2022:

(i) The Golden Boot Award of the tournament was given to Lionel Messi.
(ii) The Golden Boot Award of the tournament was given to Kylian Mbappe.
(iii) The Golden Ball Award of the tournament was given to Lionel Messi.
(iv) The Golden Ball Award of the tournament was given to Kylian Mbappe.

Select the correct statement(s) using the codes given below.

(A) Only (i)
(B) Only (ii)
(C) Both (i) and (iv)
(D) Both (ii) and (iii)

The correct answer is: (D) Both (ii) and (iii) Explanation: 1. Golden Boot Award: Kylian Mbappé won the Golden Boot for being the top scorer of the tournament. 2. Golden Ball Award: Lionel Messi received the Golden Ball, awarded to the best player of the tournament. Therefore, statements (ii) and (iii) are correct.

86. Consider the following statements about Yogyakarta Principles’:

(i) These are related to inter- national principles pertaining to human rights in the areas of sexual orientation and gender equality.
(ii) The principles seek to apply the standards of international human rights law to address the abuse of human rights of LGBTI community.
(iii) These principles were accepted in Thailand in 2006.

Select the correct statement(s) using the codes given below.

(A) Only (i)
(B) Only (ii)
(C) Both (i) and (ii)
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)

The correct answer is: (C) Both (i) and (ii)
Explanation: 1 Statement (i): The Yogyakarta Principles do indeed relate to international human rights principles concerning sexual orientation and gender identity. 2. Statement (ii): They aim to apply international human rights law standards to address human rights abuses faced by the LGBTI community. 3. Statement (iii): This statement is incorrect; the Yogyakarta Principles were actually adopted in Yogyakarta, Indonesia, not Thailand, in 2006. Thus, only statements (i) and (ii) are correct.

87. Which of the following books is/are not written jointly by Larry Collins and Dominique Lapierre?

(i) Is Paris Burning?
(ii) Freedom at Midnight
(iii) O Jerusalem!
(iv) City of Joy

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) Both (i) and (iii)
(B) Both (i) and (iv)
(C) Only (ii)
(D) Only (iv)

The correct answer is: (D) Only (iv)
Explanation: - Is Paris Burning? Written jointly by Larry Collins and Dominique Lapierre. - Freedom at Midnight: Written jointly by Larry Collins and Dominique Lapierre. - O Jerusalem! : Written jointly by Larry Collins and Dominique Lapierre. - City of Joy: Written solely by Dominique Lapierre, not in collaboration with Larry Collins. Thus, only City of Joy (iv) is not written jointly by them.

88. Consider the following statements about the recently held Voice of Global South Summit:

(i) The Summit aimed at achieving ‘Unity of Voice, Unity of Purpose’.
(ii) The Summit envisaged bringing together countries of the Global South and sharing their perspectives and priorities on a common platform.
(iii) The Summit was held in Bangkok in January 2023.

Select the correct statement(s) using the codes given below.

(A) Both (i) and (ii)
(B) Only (i)
(C) Only (ii)
(D) Both (i) and (iii)

The correct answer is: (A) Both (i) and (ii)
Explanation: - Statement (i): The Summit aimed at achieving 'Unity of Voice, Unity of Purpose' – This statement is correct. - Statement (ii): The Summit envisaged bringing together countries of the Global South and sharing their perspectives and priorities on a common platform – This statement is also correct. - Statement (iii): The Summit was held in Bangkok in January 2023 – This statement is incorrect. The Voice of Global South Summit was held virtually in January 2023, not in Bangkok. Thus, the correct statements are (i) and (ii).

89. Which of the statements given below is/are correct?

(i) GNP is always higher than GDP.
(ii) If GDP is greater than GNP, then net factor income earned abroad is negative.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) Only (i)
(B) Only (ii)
(C) Both (i) and (ii)
(D) Neither (i) nor (ii)

The correct answer is: (B) Only (ii)
Explanation: - Statement (i): GNP (Gross National Product) is not always higher than GDP (Gross Domestic Product). GNP includes net income from abroad, which means if a country's residents earn more income from abroad than foreign residents earn within the country, GNP will be higher than GDP. Conversely, if foreign income earned in the country is higher than income earned by residents abroad, GDP will be higher than GNP. Therefore, this statement is incorrect. - Statement (ii): If GDP is greater than GNP, this means that the net factor income earned abroad (NFIA) is negative. This is because GNP is calculated as GDP plus net factor income from abroad (NFIA). If GDP > GNP, it indicates that NFIA < 0, meaning that more income is being generated by foreign residents in the country than by domestic residents abroad. Thus, this statement is correct. So, the only correct statement is (ii).

90. Assertion (A):The development programmes undertaken in India are oriented towards economic growth along with social justice.

Reason (R):and Indian economy is afflicted with poverty, unemployment inequalities.

Select the correct answer from the following options.

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the correct explanation for (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation for (A)
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct
(D) (A) is not correct, but (R) is correct

The correct answer is: (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the correct explanation for (A)
Explanation: - Assertion (A): The development programmes undertaken in India are indeed oriented towards economic growth along with social justice. The government emphasizes inclusive growth to ensure that economic progress benefits all sections of society, particularly the marginalized. - Reason (R): The statement that the Indian economy is afflicted with poverty, unemployment, and inequalities is accurate. These issues highlight the necessity for development programmes that aim not just at growth, but also at addressing social disparities and enhancing social justice. Since both statements are correct and (R) provides a valid explanation for (A), option (A) is the correct choice.

91. Consider the following statements:

(i) Russia recently pulled out of the Black Sea Grain Deal, which was launched to mitigate food inflation caused by the conflict in Ukraine.
(ii) The Black Sea Grain Deal was an agreement between Russia and Ukraine with Turkey and the United Nations.
(iii) The Black Sea Grain Deal facilitated the safe navigation of export of grain, foodstuff and fertilizers from Ukraine.

Select the correct statement(s) using the codes given below.

(A) Both (i) and (ii)
(B) Both (i) and (iii)
(C) Only (ii)
(D) Neither (i) nor (ii)

The correct answer is: (A) Both (i) and (ii)
Explanation: - Statement (i): This is correct. Russia did recently withdraw from the Black Sea Grain Deal, which was designed to address food inflation and ensure the export of agricultural products amid the conflict in Ukraine. - Statement (ii): This is also correct. The Black Sea Grain Deal was indeed an agreement involving Russia and Ukraine, facilitated by Turkey and the United Nations, aimed at enabling safe maritime exports. - Statement (iii): While the Black Sea Grain Deal did facilitate the export of grain, foodstuffs, and fertilizers, the focus of the question is on the statements as presented. However, the first two statements are enough to confirm option (A) as correct. Therefore, the best choice is (A) Both (i) and (ii).

92. Which of the following is the theme of the World Rhino Day, 2022?

(A) Conservation of Rhinos
(B) Campaign for Rhinos
(C) Five Rhino Species Forever
(D) Say No to Poaching

The theme of World Rhino Day 2022 was (C) Five Rhino Species Forever. This theme emphasized the need to conserve all five species of rhinos and highlight the importance of their survival in the wild.

93. What is the unique feature of the ‘Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav (AKAM)’ design coins, recently launched by the Prime Minister?

(A) Visually impaired friendly coin
(B) Bronze coin
(C) Eight scalloped coin
(D) Aluminium-Magnesium coin

The unique feature of the 'Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav (AKAM)' design coins, recently launched by the Prime Minister, is (C) Eight scalloped coin. These coins are designed with eight scallops, reflecting a distinctive shape that sets them apart from standard coins.

94. Which one of the following capital cities of the North-Eastern region is proposed to be connected with Bangladesh via rail route as part of the Act East Policy?

(A) Agartala
(B) Guwahati
(C) Imphal
(D) Shillong

The capital city of the North-Eastern region that is proposed to be connected with Bangladesh via rail route as part of the Act East Policy is (C) Imphal.

95. The initiative taken by the Ministry of Education, Government of India with the aim to strengthen schools through community and private sector involvement in schools across the country is named as

(A) Vidyakalpa
(B) Vidyasahayata
(C) Vidyanirman
(D) Vidyanjali

The initiative taken by the Ministry of Education, Government of India, with the aim to strengthen schools through community and private sector involvement is named (D) Vidyanjali.

96. Which of the following sectors are identified as focus areas by the NITI Forum for North-East?

(A) Bamboo, Dairy, Pisciculture, Tea, Tourism
(B) Tea, Bamboo, Jute, Honey, Wheat
(C) Tea, Tourism, Agar, Rubber, Honey
D) Tea, Bamboo, Pisciculture, Dairy, Rubber

The correct option is (A) Bamboo, Dairy, Pisciculture, Tea, Tourism.
The NITI Forum for North-East identifies these sectors as focus areas to promote sustainable economic development in the region. Each sector leverages the North-East's unique resources and strengths, aiming to boost local livelihoods, enhance infrastructure, and increase overall economic growth in a balanced manner.

97. Which of the following combinations of the Ramsar Sites and the States of North-East India, where they are located, are correct?

(i) Rudrasagar Lake Assam
(ii) Loktak Lake-Manipur
(iii) Deepor Beel-Assam
(iv) Pala Wetlands-Meghalaya

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) Only (i) and (iii)
B) Only (ii) and (iv)
(C) Only (ii) and (iii)
(D) Only (iii) and (iv)

The correct answer is (C) Only (ii) and (iii).
Loktak Lake is located in Manipur and is the only floating national park in the world. - Deepor Beel is situated in Assam and is recognized for its biodiversity. Rudrasagar Lake is also in Assam but is not a Ramsar Site, while Pala Wetlands in Meghalaya is not a Ramsar Site either.

98. Consider the following statements. about the Varman dynasty:

(i) Mahendravarman was founder of the dynasty.
(ii) Pushyavarman performed two horse sacrifice rituals.
(iii) Chinese pilgrim Hieun Tsang visited Kamarupa during the reign of Bhaskaravarman.

Select the correct statement(s) using the codes given below.

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii).
(B) Only (i) and (iii)
(C) Only (ii) and (iii)
(D) Only (iii)

The correct answer is (C) Only (ii) and (iii).
Statement (i) is incorrect: The Varman dynasty was founded by Pushyavarman, not Mahendravarman. - Statement (ii) is correct: Pushyavarman is noted for performing two Ashvamedha (horse sacrifice) rituals. - Statement (iii) is also correct: The Chinese pilgrim Hieun Tsang visited Kamarupa during the reign of Bhaskaravarman.

100. Consider the following events about the year 1926 in the context of Assam:

(i) Birth of Dr. Bhupen Hazarika
(ii) Annual Session of the INC at Pand
(iii) Formation of Assam Pradeshik Mahila Samiti

Select the correct event(s) using the codes given below.

(A) Only (i) and (ii)
(B) Only (ii)
(C) Only (i) and (iii)
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)

The correct answer is (C) Only (i) and (iii).
Statement (i) is correct: Dr. Bhupen Hazarika, the renowned singer and filmmaker, was born in 1926. - Statement (ii) is incorrect: The Annual Session of the Indian National Congress (INC) was held in 1926 at Kanpur, not Pand. - Statement (iii) is correct: The Assam Pradeshik Mahila Samit, an organization for women's rights and empowerment, was also formed in **1926**.

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